I think I see the source of the confusion here. It wasn't you I was originally responding to but the other member from post #14 above who had said, "To be a Christian really means to follow Christ as well as learn what the Bible says."
My challenge was to that "learn what the Bible says" comment. He was speaking in response to challenge my saying about those who are not literalists, "They are still Christian however, because being Christian doesn't have anything to do with believing in biblical inerrancy."
So his comment is that to be a Christian, you have to learn, not just Jesus teaching, but all it regarding things like the creation story, the Jewish history, and the like. In other words, in his thinking, is that aside from obvious allegories and the like, in order to be a Christian you need to be a biblical literalist and innerrentist.
You can learn what you need to know about God through nature. You know that the Bible teaches this?
Depends when in history you lived, and where. Depends upon your economic means. And so forth.
Not if you lived anytime before 100 years ago.
Yeah. I've had others tell me what the Bible "really says" before.
They were important to them because they were part of a culture where it was part of its traditions as Jews. I really don't think they have the same meaning to non-Jews as they did to the Jews whom Jesus was speaking to. The reason it wouldn't is because we didn't grow up in that culture at that time in history. We can learn about it, but it will never be the same to those who grew up within it.
I had thought you were the one who was saying the learning the Bible was a requirement to be a Christian. Apparently that wasn't you saying it. You simply began responding to my response to his, and I didn't catch the change in person I was talking with.
You believe every household had scrolls? You know the expense that would have been involved in that? They didn't have printing presses nor typewriters. These things were all done by hand by scribes. There was enormous costs and labor behind the production of a single scroll. There was no way every household had them.
I'm pretty certain that they were taught to memorize these things.
They taught him what they had been taught, word of mouth. Through the traditions and rituals and practices. Cultural programming, in other words. They did not have public education systems with school buses and books and backpacks back then.
He was addressing the rabbis. Yes, the rabbis had scriptures and were trained how to read them.
Yes. He was an important official, an Ethiopian Eunuch who most clearly in that position would have been educated and literate, and have access to books, which the average layperson would not have on either count.
Yes, they went into a synagogue where they had scrolls. That's not sitting on a coffee table in some layperson's home.
Yes, Apollos was an educated man and was able to both read and write and had been trained previously in scripture.
This is not what every Jew was like. There was no public education systems back them. They didn't have K-12 schools with a lunch program and phy-ed classes while their parents were working 8-5 jobs. It didn't look anything like 21st century United States of America.
Sure, children were taught in the synagogues the religious traditions of their culture. This is not the same thing as learning how to read and write and do arithmetic. It was cultural programming.
If we are to believe this was written by the Apostle Paul (which most modern scholars do not), Paul was an educated Jew. Obviously from his authentic letters we know he could write. So him having scroll would hardly be a surprise. Certain people did, and he would have been one of them, obviously.
On the basis of experience and the teachings of scripture itself that affirms that.
Surely I do. Yes, he pointed to those who where there at the moment as an example of what he meant to say to the religious scoffers who didn't think such as these were true followers of the law. They were examples of how not the pious religious followers of the law were children of God, but those whose hearts were softened and did the will of God - regardless of their religious status.
So his very words "whoever does the will of my Father", is not limited to just those he pointed to, but "whoever does". That means non-Jews. That also means, non-Christian religionists. That would mean "whoever does", exactly as he said.
Yeah, so? That doesn't change what came before it in anyway at all.
"Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness"
God will reveal on the day of judgment, that they in fact, without the law, did the things required by the law, for "whosoever does the will of my Father, are my brothers and sisters...". This means they by nature, without preachers, without bible study classes, were in fact children of God.
You've said this as God, have you?