• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Can Jewish law be fulfilled?

A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
No, you didn't. You used a concordance. I used my knowledge of the Hebrew language.

You used your knowledge from which ever concordance you used.

I'm beginning to think I should take back the benefit of the doubt I gave you. You ARE a rip-off artist. You are saying that the concordance is YOUR knowledge of Hebrew.

:tsk: I was trying to help. Now I know I shouldn't have bothered.

Harmonious correcting me?

Here's what she said about YOU.
 
A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
1) Working your butt off doesn't mean you own the damn language! . it doesn't give you proprietary rights over it,

here ---> http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2323485-post670.html and http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2323544-post689.html

2) "making up something; making stuff up". . .assumes facts not in evidence, per (2), (6,b) @ http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2318652-post514.html

3) And, of course, you know all there is to know, and there couldn't be anyone who knows more than you, and emphatically disagrees with you, could there?

Your vanity is showing. . .

My peers aren't idiots.

Don't flatter yourself. The knowledge of my peers is terrifying and IF they disagree with me, they still respect my opinions because they are informed and honest.
 
This is a common Christian belief, that Jesus fulfilled Jewish law. But is that even possible? As in, can anyone fulfill Jewish law?

To me, it simply doesn't sound right.

Mankind cannot fulfill Jewish Law. Jesus came to earth to fulfill the Law, not destroy it (Matt 5:17). Jesus was able to fulfill the Law only because He was fully God as well as fully man (Colossians 1:15-17, 2:9, John 1:1, John 8:58, 10:30, John 1:14, Hebrews 4:15, Philippians 2:5-11).
A righteous man without sin was the only way to fulfill the Law. However, because mankind is born with a sinful nature, it would take God becoming flesh to fulfill the Law. Jesus did that.
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
No, you didn't.
I didn't say it was my knowledge of hebrew. . .and a concordance doesn't translate sentences. . .it didn't come from a concordance. . .and what's it to you? . .
your bias is showing. . .
You used a concordance. I used my knowledge of the Hebrew language.
You used your knowledge from which ever concordance you used.
I'm beginning to think I should take back the benefit of the doubt I gave you. You ARE a rip-off artist. You are saying that the concordance is YOUR knowledge of Hebrew.
Assumes facts not in evidence.

:tsk:
I was trying to help. Now I know I shouldn't have bothered.
If you didn't despise the NT so much, you would have more credibility on this. . .
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
The Serpent did not lie when he said.."You will not surely die."
You have to understand the conversation between Eve and the Serpent.
Look at the previous verse.....Genesis 3:3
"'but from the fruit of the tree which is in the middle of the garden, God has said, 'You shall not eat from it or touch it, or you will die.'"

Eve is telling the Serpent that God said.....if you eat the fruit you will surely die.
The Serpent replies concerning the fruit...."
And I say the serpent replies concerning God's command. . .and you're wrestling the Scriptures (2Pe 3:16b).
You will not surely die." This is a true statement. The fruit didn't kill Adam and Eve. It was not poisonous. There was nothing wrong with the fruit.
God caused the eventual death of Adam and Eve by denying them access to the fruit of the tree of life.
Look at this analogy.....
Let's say a man tells you that if you eat Pizza you will surely die.
I tell you...... you will not surely die. [if you eat Pizza].
Have I lied to you? Does eating Pizza result in death? Of course not. Just as eating fruit does not cause death.
But if after you eat Pizza, the man puts a plastic bag over your head and denies you access to oxygen....does that now make me a liar?
BigRed
Try this analogy:
Geraldine arrives at the Pearly Gates.
St. Peter inquires about what caused her death.
She replies, "Gonorrhea."
St. Peter replied, "You don't die from gonorrhea."
Geraldine responded, "You do if you gives it to Lee-Roy!"
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
Of course I know what one is. It tells you of all the times a word is used, particularly in the Bible.
That's a lexicon.
However, not enough authors are familiar enough with the ebb and flow of the Hebrew language, so they give you what they THINK is the proper context. However, just because Strongs or Briggs, or whoever, gives examples of occurrences, that doesn't mean that they understand the usage of the word as someone who actually USES HEBREW ON A DAILY BASIS would know it.
They only kinda sorta know it in a quasi-scholarly way, because they have tracked down all the times it is used without actually understanding the grammatical usage. They often GIVE EXAMPLES of "grammatical usage", but they aren't always correct.
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
Huh. How do you like that? I thought that was in a verse. Apparently, it was an oral learning that I mistakenly thought was in Genesis proper.
You are right. Good for you.
Is this where I get to be biased. . .assume facts not in evidence. . .and accuse you of being a rip-off artist?

Or, is this where I get to "give you the benefit of the doubt" and take you at your word on this?

http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2323612-post702.html
 
Last edited:

smokydot

Well-Known Member
Deuteronomy 24:16
Fathers shall not be put to death for their sons, nor shall sons be put to death for their fathers; everyone shall be put to death for his own sin.

What makes you think that Jesus could die for your sins?
""""everyone shall be put to death for his own sin."""

BigRed
The Divine Lawgiver who legislated it, and the Divine Judge who applied it to this case, as revealed in the NT.
 
Last edited:

smokydot

Well-Known Member
Moses spoke to ALL Israel.
Deuteronomy 29:10-15
10"You stand today, all of you, before the LORD your God: your chiefs, your tribes, your elders and your officers, even all the men of Israel,
11your little ones, your wives, and the alien who is within your camps, from the one who chops your wood to the one who draws your water,
12that you may enter into the covenant with the LORD your God, and into His oath which the LORD your God is making with you today,
13in order that He may establish you today as His people and that He may be your God, just as He spoke to you and as He swore to your fathers, to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
14"Now not with you alone am I making this covenant and this oath,
15but both with those who stand here with us today in the presence of the LORD our God and with those who are not with us here today
Notice verse 15. After listing all possible persons who are Israel, Moses says “both with those who stand here with us today in the presence of the LORD our God and with those who are not with us here today.” So who were not there that day? Answer…Future Generations of Israel.
Moses said….Deuteronomy 30:1-5
1"So it shall be when all of these things have come upon you, the blessing and the curse which I have set before you, and you call them to mind in all nations where the LORD your God has banished you,
2and you return to the LORD your God and obey Him with all your heart and soul according to all that I command you today, you and your sons,
3then the LORD your God will restore you from captivity, and have compassion on you, and will gather you again from all the peoples where the LORD your God has scattered you.
4"If your outcasts are at the ends of the earth, from there the LORD your God will gather you, and from there He will bring you back.
5"The LORD your God will bring you into the land which your fathers possessed, and you shall possess it; and He will prosper you and multiply you more than your fathers.
Here is the BIG QUESTION….Has this been fulfilled?
Has ALL Israel been gathered up and brought back to the land?
A few of the tribe of Judah have come back. But what about the lost tribes?
I think it is Harmonious who says they are not lost.
What about all the generations that have died?
It is obvious that this passage has not been fulfilled.
So when Christians claim that the Law has been fulfilled by Jesus, they are not correct.
 
BigRed
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
You got it from the Hebrew?
Got it from knowledge of hebrew, as did Harmonious. . .didn't say it was my own knowledge. . .it was another's knowledge who is much more knowledgeable than you.
Not having read the Hebrew, how on earth can you say that you "got it from the Hebrew?"
Seems that you got it from the English -- and rather thoughtless, as we've shown.
 
Last edited:
Top