Aqualung said:
Not in order to be chosen for life, but to be chosen for exaltation into the highest degree of glory. (Are you by any chance a JW?) How can you say that everybody will inherit exactly the same degree of glory, especially in light of John 14:2 (the verse I mentioned earlier about the mansions)? Do you think that people just get to pick their own mansion, entirely based in desire and not how they acted? People who choose christ will certainly be resurected into a great glory, better than anything else you can imagine, but those who take all that time to follow the ordinanced will get that much more.
This is where your belief that everybody will attain the same resurrection becomes problematic. Jesus clearly said, "those who have done good will rise to life, and those who have done evil will rise to be condemned". The Bible
never calls God's condemnation a different degree of glory. In fact, it was such a fearful prospect that even God felt the need to intervene by sending his own Son to be condemned in our place - to be sin in sin's place so that "whoever believes in him is
not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned
already because he has not believed in the name of God's one and only Son" (John 3:18).
God promised only
one kingdom for those who share in Christ's resurrection. Jesus says in John 14:2: "In my Father's
house there are many mansions". Every person's body is a mansion (Gr.
mone = "dwelling") of God. Jesus uses the same word a little later:
John 14:23 "[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva][font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva][font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.[/font][/font][/font]
[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]
[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva][font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva] God will live with that person and that person will live with the Father and the Son, no matter what kind of "glory" he has. That brings me to the earlier point. What kind of glory will the resurrected believer have according to the Bible? The Bible clearly tells us "[/font][/font][/font]all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God", so that whatever glory we could have apart from our works must come from God. As the John Gill exposition says: "[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]
[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]he saints are all loved with the same love, bought with the same price, justified with the same righteousness, and are equally the sons of God, their glory will be the same". Compare this to what the ancient Jewish rabbis taught:[/font][/font]
R. Isaack (Zohar to Deut.): "how many (Nyrwdm le Nyrwdm) , "mansions upon mansions", are there for the righteous in that world? and the uppermost mansion of them all is the love of their Lord.''[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]
...and:
[/font]"in the world to come every righteous man shall have ([font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva][font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]rwdm), "a mansion", to himself.''[/font][/font]
[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva]
[font=Trebuchet MS, Arial, Geneva] Along with this information, we have the words of Paul:[/font][/font]
Rom. 8:17 Now if we are children, then we are heirs heirs of God and co-heirs with Christ, if indeed we share in his sufferings in order that we may also share in his glory.
2 Cor. 3:18... And we, who with unveiled faces all reflect the Lord's glory, are being transformed into his likeness with ever-increasing glory, which comes from the Lord, who is the Spirit.
So, the crucial distinction to make, is: who are the chidren of God. Are they the children of Adam, merely by virtue of our common descent, or the children of God's promise? If Christ is the "yes" to all God's promises (2 Cor. 1:20), even his promise of glory, and Christ is our "hope of glory" (Col. 1:27), how do you suppose someone can "get that much more" by continuing to do what Israel did for the thousands of years before Christ came? Are God's greatest promises now suddenly
conditional in Christ, and not
certain anymore?
Matt 3:15 "suffer it to be so now...to fulfill all righteousness." Even Jesus needed baptism, and shoudn't we strive to follow him, especially in something that he did "to fulfill all righteousness"?
28:19 "teach all nations, baptise them." not teach all nations, and then if they want, you can go ahead and baptise them, but you don't need to.
Mark 16:16 "he that beleiveth and is baptized shall be saved."
John 3:5 "except a man be born of water and of the spirit he cann ot enter into the kindgom of God."
Acts 2:38 "repent and be baptised every one of you." Don't you think repentences is necessary, and therefore baptism, too?
10:48 "commanded them to be baptised"
etc.
To say that baptism isn't necessary is to fly in the face of the sriptures, not just "my scriptures" but yours as well.
You miss the point entirely. I know not one Christian who would not have himself baptized as Jesus commanded. The issue isn't whether baptism is necessary or not, but whether it has
anything to do with any human priesthood.
John's baptism was of repentance (Matt. 3:11). Jesus was without sin, so his baptism must have been for a different reason than anybody else's. And surely enough, he says it must be done to "fulfill all righteousness"; and as John predicted, the
real baptism became visible for the first time: that of the Holy Spirit. So much so that later, when Paul found people who knew only John's baptism, he had to tell them about the Holy Spirit (Acts 19:1-5), and "On hearing this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus". Baptism with water refers to an outward sign, and it can be done very validly and with just as much authority as John the baptist had - with as much authority as Aaron or Melchizedek
themselves had - and it still wouldn't save anyone. It's Jesus who saves, and the Spirit is our assurance of that salvation (Eph. 1:14).
In fact, why are we baptised at all, if we can never "fulfill all righteousness" by a religious ceremony? Paul tells us:
We were therefore buried with him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life.
Now I ask you, does this baptism refer to
all people - are
everyone baptised into Christ's death and will
everyone "live a new life"? Will
everyone escape condemnation and the second death? And can someone who
has been buried with Jesus expect a different resurrection and a different glory - a different Spirit - than He received? The Bible answers all these questions.
Keep in mind that Jesus' intention was never to build a house divided in itself. There may be different mansions in that house, like there now are different bodies that are all equally "the temple of God" on earth, but he includes everyone given to him in
one body:
I have given them the glory that you gave me, that they may be one as we are one: I in them and you in me (John 17:22-23).
Christ emphasized the unity of those He came to save, and though it was meant for everyone, He knew not everyone would accept it before final judgement was pronounced. That's why it is still delayed (2 Pet. 3:15) - but it will not be delayed forever. Mormons create a division between those who accept (who share the same fate as those who don't), those who accept it more, and those who accept it
most.