uss_bigd
Well-Known Member
No, of course not. Polygamy is clearly permitted by both books of the Christian Bible.
Which verse in the NT are you refering to? could you reconcile that with matthew 19:5 ( two become one flesh)
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
No, of course not. Polygamy is clearly permitted by both books of the Christian Bible.
The verse that isn't there because it doesn't exist. That is, any verse that prohibits polygamy.Which verse in the NT are you refering to? could you reconcile that with matthew 19:5 ( two become one flesh)
The verse that isn't there because it doesn't exist. That is, any verse that prohibits polygamy.
Matthew 19:5 just tells how any husband and wife should live in relation to one another, not anything about number.
Look, uss, it's simple. God knows how to prohibit things: "Thou shalt not..." He does that a lot. He doesn't do it about polygamy. Therefore polygamy is not prohibited.
Right. It states a general rule. It does not state that God never can or will allow any exceptions to this rule.it states a general rule, those will marry will constitute two peole not 3 or 4 but two.
Right. It states a general rule. It does not state that God never can or will allow any exceptions to this rule.
no one can make me shut up.
So uss_bigd still hasn't replied about the Judas thing?
You think God forgot how to issue prohibitions? And no, Matthew 19 does not prohibit polygamy, it merely tells how husbands and wives should relate to each other. I think if God had wanted to outlaw something He had formerly permitted, He knew how to say so. In fact Christians continued to practice polygamy for 3 centuries afterward, until Christianity became Romanized, at which point they accepted the Roman model of marriage, which was monogamous. That's why it's not prohibited in the Bible; it was the custom in the Near East at that time.In the ot yes. the NT has a whole new approach.
Mat 19;5 said you are no longer two but one. it states a general rule, those will marry will constitute two peole not 3 or 4 but two.
Circumstancial evidence attorney. the circumstances potrayed in the verse does not provide for the acceptance of polygamy.
Have patience, Sola, uss has to accomplish the impossible: reconciling two contradictory verses. He's working on it.So uss_bigd still hasn't replied about the Judas thing?
You think God forgot how to issue prohibitions? And no, Matthew 19 does not prohibit polygamy, it merely tells how husbands and wives should relate to each other. I think if God had wanted to outlaw something He had formerly permitted, He knew how to say so. In fact Christians continued to practice polygamy for 3 centuries afterward, until Christianity became Romanized, at which point they accepted the Roman model of marriage, which was monogamous. That's why it's not prohibited in the Bible; it was the custom in the Near East at that time.
My father said that "become one flesh" referred to having children and so it did not rule out polygamy. On the other hand, a man can only leave his father and mother to cling to his wife once. Mathew 19:5
even if he support his opinion with scripture, it is still his opinion.thats your opinion... support your claim with scripture.
I was using logic, it tells a man to leave his father and mother and cling to his wife and the two become one flesh. That's the entire verse which you are quoting. Now I get how a person may say that two becoming one could be referring to children but logic tells us that when a man leaves his father and mother to cling to his wife he's only going to leave them once. Is he to go back and live with his parents again for every wife he marries? Not likely. That's what my statement was. A man does not "Leave his father and mother" multiple times so the verse is most likely speaking of his first wife. The very next verse says "So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
The old testament verse Our Savior was quoting was Gen 2:24 "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh." This was Adam speaking right after the creation of Eve also before the fruit of the tree was eaten. This was the verse our Savior chose to quote on marriage. If God had intended polygamy why did he make Adam only one woman?
even if he support his opinion with scripture, it is still his opinion.
Slapping out verses to explain why you hold the opinion you hold does not make your opinion fact.
I think what uss_Bigd is asking is since this is a Biblical debate the parameters should be confined to the Bible.
Then he should take his OFF TOPIC debate to another threadI think what uss_Bigd is asking is since this is a Biblical debate the parameters should be confined to the Bible.
Then he should take his OFF TOPIC debate to another thread