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Thanks for posting that. An historical-Jesus-killing statement, so it seems to me.
What is the usual counterargument against it? An interpolation? A mistranslation?
Complete silence.
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Thanks for posting that. An historical-Jesus-killing statement, so it seems to me.
What is the usual counterargument against it? An interpolation? A mistranslation?
That's a fine opinion, I guess, but I consider it a profound misunderstanding of human nature.
You'll never convince me that he would neglect to speak of Jesus' earthly life... if he knew anything about it.
Plus, you'd have me believe that ALL the epistle writers were of the same mind as 'Paul.' Different people writing epistles and not one of them mentions that Jesus rode into Jerusalem on a donkey or washed the feet of his womenfolk or whatever.
And we're back to "You'll never convince me."Right. Just like Biblical scholars.
Neither an interpolation nor a mistranslation. Paul is attempting to establish his authority. Frankly, Paul's claims sound like hogwash to me, but then, I'm used to people like Jimmy Swaggart.[/i]
Thanks for posting that. An historical-Jesus-killing statement, so it seems to me.
What is the usual counterargument against it? An interpolation? A mistranslation?
The writings of Paul, and the writings of the early Christians, provide sufficient evidence for this.
Probably because many of the "Jesus said" passages we see in the Gospels are post-Pauline inventions.
We _probably_ have some more-or-less genuine speeches from Jesus in the Gospels ... but it takes better scholarship than I have to parse the genuine from the later additions. The Jesus Seminar attempted to tackle the problem, but I have to admit that I'm a little skeptical about their conclusions. I'm not going to say they're wrong, but I do consider their conclusions somewhat questionable.
Steeltoes, the NT _is_ evidence. It's not eyewitness evidence, it's not all that strong in the way of evidence, but it is evidence. Writing off the NT would be like writing off Caesar's _Gallic Wars_ for information about the Gauls. It isn't the best evidence ... it's just the best we've got.
"You'll never convince me" sounds a lot like what Ken Ham said about evolution.
Only about half the letters attributed to Paul are genuine. The rest of the letters (and the ones attributed to other authors, or Hebrews which is not attributed to any author) were written later, when the eyewitnesses were already dead.
Neither an interpolation nor a mistranslation. Paul is attempting to establish his authority. Frankly, Paul's claims sound like hogwash to me, but then, I'm used to people like Jimmy Swaggart.
Evidence of what exactly?
Why is he more likely to exist than Moses or Abraham?
What makes you so sure of that? Greco-Roman culture viewed Judaism as a backwards, idiotic religion. Doesn't make sense that many Hellenes would be lining up to join.
What do you mean by "weak religions"? You do know that Greco-Roman polytheism was persecuted out of existence, right? People didn't just abandon it. They were forced to join Catholicism on pain of death.
Because both of those characters were written about placing them a thousand years back inhistory from when they were first written about.
Jesus is real because they wrote about him when people who heard him were still alive and could refute it, if it was mythology. Thats the biggest difference.
We dont have early anyone writing about Jesus as a literary creation.
Hehe... thanks for that. I was wondering what you were made of. You make it easy to see.
By the way, why do you ignore steeltoe's quote from Paul where Paul claims to have gotten his teachings from no man?
How does that address my argument?
Nah, the pseudo-Paulines were written after the Gospels (well, at least after most of them--John may have been written later than some of the pseudo-paulines). And then you have the non-canonicals, many of which were written later. But we have no evidence that the authors of the pseudo-Pauline epistles had access to the Gospels. Unlike today, of course, books weren't mass-produced, and did not spread quickly.So you're claiming that the fake Paulines were written after Paul but before the gospels? And that in that short window, all the eyewitnesses to Jesus up and died?
Or have I misunderstood you?
Good stuff! And thus, if a member was to suggest that the senior guard (decurion?) at Yeshua's cruicifixion was bribed, possibly by Josephus or one of the women..... to declare him dead, and then recive the order to bust the other's legs.................... this is not beyomnd the bounds of possibility. Crowds would have (possibly) got bored and left long before....
Where can I read about this?
I don't get it. What's the difference between a man who doesn't exist and a man who did not exist in the flesh?
2 John 1:7 I say this because many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist.
Ah. So we can't trust Paul at all about historical matters?
Ah, I like historical trivia. And for me, the question of a historical Jesus is trivial, but it is interesting.I'm with you. Why take any of it seriously.
We dont have early anyone writing about Jesus as a literary creation.
Evidence that a specific person was alive to be crucified during the reign of Pilate.
One big piece of evidence in that direction is that James's appellation "the brother of the Lord" is not an inherited title. James claimed to be the literal brother of a literal person, and you had people around who could have shut him down by saying "Hey, he wasn't your brother, you're full of it."
Contrary to the claims of the Christians,the Pauline letters and the GOspels are also examples of how quickly a once-living person can have a legendarium build up around him.
If an actual man had lived in 30 CE Jerusalem, the letter writers would have spoken of him in some detail... his earthly life. That's because, as I think you've admitted, they were able to visit with people (disciples) who actually knew of his physical life.
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Well, except for the writer of Mark.
One man's big piece of evidence is another man's opinion. "The brother of the Lord" contains two metaphors, and you appear to have an opinion as to what they mean.
Of course it doesn't help me: the James epistle is pseudonymous.Maybe you could look to the James Epistle for support of your interpretation, although I already know it doesn't help you at all.