Shermana
Heretic
I guess Eusebius had some uncanny hatred for the word of God since he quoted it 20x and only used the same formula found every other time "In my name". I assume you don't even know there are interpolations? It doesn't matter if you have 20 translations that all say it, the orignial is what matters. There are 20 translations that translate John 1:1 as "And the word as God" when it really is supposed to say "And a god was the word" but only a few translations have that. Majority translation may = correct to you, but not to scholars. These modern translations are modern translations. For example, many of them include the ending of Mark and the Pericope Adulterae, but that doesn't mean they were originally in the writ.
Constantine Wrote Matthew 28:19 Into Your Bible!
Hold on here, you ADMIT that the Catholic Church "changed the formula", so if they didn't change the word, are you saying that when they "changed the formula" that it was meant to be a correct change in the Word? I think you're subtley admitting that Matthew 28:19 does contain an interpolation (evidenced by the interpolations in Ignatius' epistle of repeating 28:19), but why do you say they didn't change the word? How does that work?
Not to mention the writers of Acts who only ever mentions the Disciples baptizing in Jesus' name. Quite odd.
I highly recommend you stop accusing people of having a hatred of the word of God just because they do not accept the KJV as is or your translation and interpretation of it.
I find it interesting that the Book of Revelation has so many variants and interpolations. Quite obviously, the KJV who added the spurious Alpha and Omega (and the MSS from the 10th century on) in 1:11 is under the curse of 22:18-19.
Constantine Wrote Matthew 28:19 Into Your Bible!
FYI, the Catholic Church changed the formula but not the Word of God.
Hold on here, you ADMIT that the Catholic Church "changed the formula", so if they didn't change the word, are you saying that when they "changed the formula" that it was meant to be a correct change in the Word? I think you're subtley admitting that Matthew 28:19 does contain an interpolation (evidenced by the interpolations in Ignatius' epistle of repeating 28:19), but why do you say they didn't change the word? How does that work?
Not to mention the writers of Acts who only ever mentions the Disciples baptizing in Jesus' name. Quite odd.
I highly recommend you stop accusing people of having a hatred of the word of God just because they do not accept the KJV as is or your translation and interpretation of it.
I find it interesting that the Book of Revelation has so many variants and interpolations. Quite obviously, the KJV who added the spurious Alpha and Omega (and the MSS from the 10th century on) in 1:11 is under the curse of 22:18-19.
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