I am asking you.Well it looks like you're not too interested in my Socratic method, but let's try this again:
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I am asking you.Well it looks like you're not too interested in my Socratic method, but let's try this again:
I am asking you.
So you mean it doesn't apply elsewhere, and that's why it's not taken seriously?As you can see, since you refuse to even try to find 3 other examples where it would possibly even apply, it was made up just for that one verse. That's why no one takes it seriously. It's a mockery of language studies and utter proof of the lengths Trinitarians will go to, even making up their own grammar rules which get proven wrong yet they cling to them even if in 20 other cases they are disproven.
I remember discussing this with you before.Looks like John 20:28 isn't about Vocatives. Now which articled-"god" is being talked about in 2 Corinthians 4:4
kai___theos____en_____ho___ logos
and___ God___ was___ the____ word
All the translations translate "and God was the word" as "and the word was God".
I believe this: Its very simple. Only if one insists upon denying the deity of Christ must they twist or add to scripture. But he who calmed the sea, walked on water, multiplied the loaves and fishes, healed the multitudes, by whom all things consist, whom angels worship and who will judge the world and to whom every knee shall bow, to him who forgives sins and who paid for our sins, who is the image of the invisible God, is from everlasting, who is all knowing, omni-present, only-begotten not made is truly God incarnate as the Bible clearly teaches and has been declared from the very beginning. That is my belief.
All the translations translate "and God was the word" as "and the word was God".
2 Corinthians 4:4 says, " Christ, who is the image of God[SIZE=+0]". This means Christ who we can see, is the very image of the invisible God whom we cannot see. [/SIZE]That's why if we have seen Christ, we have seen the Father as they are one. Jesus is God incarnate-made flesh and dwelt among us.Looks like John 20:28 isn't about Vocatives. Now which articled-"god" is being talked about in 2 Corinthians 4:4
Yes, even Shermana proved the divinity of Christ:
http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2602652-post804.html
You're welcome.Thank you for a most excellent example of how a Trinitarian can take one subject totally out of context to mean something else than what was said. Why don't you explain how, in relation to the NLT verse which I used to explain what I meant about the word "given".
There is a very poor translation used by a certain cult but all the rest agree, The Word was God.All translations? Another honest statement by Trinitarians. There's not a single one that says otherwise apparently.
2 Corinthians 4:4 says, " Christ, who is the image of God[SIZE=+0]". This means Christ who we can see, is the very image of the invisible God whom we cannot see. [/SIZE]That's why if we have seen Christ, we have seen the Father as they are one. Jesus is God incarnate-made flesh and dwelt among us.
There is a very poor translation used by a certain cult but all the rest agree, The Word was God.
I hope you're done editing...Do you know no bounds on how to deliberately misinterpret what people say?
Finally.Originally Posted by Shermana:
Acts 4:12 refers to the son...
Acts 4:12 is talking about G-d...
Yes, who thought he'd finally say itFinally.
Hmm...you think the NWT is accurate??? LOL!It's only a "very poor translation" in relation to your doctrinal Theology, gramatically its fine, do you think they are the first people to translate it as such? It's been done that way since the 17th century, just not by "Mainstream Church" editions. It's also translated as "And the Word was Divine" in some cases. I think CARM is specifically and deliberately abetting this myth that the JW's invented this, there's no way that Matt Slick can possibly be unaware that the JWs didn't invent this concept, but I think he knows well and doesn't discuss its earlier use.
Finally.