waitasec
Veteran Member
really...why were they looking for him then?
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Did Jesus say he was God???
- Thread starter Muffled
- Start date
really...why were they looking for him then?
For many reasons, but your original argument that He was charged.
As I said: no, not yet.
waitasec
Veteran Member
what were the reasons....?
you are right, my mistake...accused for claiming to be god
Have you read the bible?
I think this is easy to spot yourself.
You can use Biblos.com: Search, Read, Study the Bible in Many Languages for search.
waitasec
Veteran Member
matthew 27:11 Meanwhile Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor asked him, “Are you the king of the Jews?”
“You have said so,” Jesus replied.
12 When he was accused by the chief priests and the elders, he gave no answer. 13 Then Pilate asked him, “Don’t you hear the testimony they are bringing against you?”
how then could judas say he betrayed innocent blood if jesus was god, king of the jews, in verse 4?
jesus was god and king of the jews, right?
“You have said so,” Jesus replied.
12 When he was accused by the chief priests and the elders, he gave no answer. 13 Then Pilate asked him, “Don’t you hear the testimony they are bringing against you?”
how then could judas say he betrayed innocent blood if jesus was god, king of the jews, in verse 4?
jesus was god and king of the jews, right?
Well done, now I hope you continue to read the commentary.
You can only learn if you do the work yourself. After reading, if you still have questions, you could ask me.
waitasec
Veteran Member
why didn't you respond to...
matthew 27:11 Meanwhile Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor asked him, “Are you the king of the Jews?”
“You have said so,” Jesus replied.
12 When he was accused by the chief priests and the elders, he gave no answer. 13 Then Pilate asked him, “Don’t you hear the testimony they are bringing against you?”
yes, jesus was accused of calling himself god, king of the jews
so was he god or the king of the jews or not?
your arguments seem to indicate that he wasn't calling himself that...how interesting
I asked you to try to do some work on your own, and then ask when you need. All what you have to do is do some reading. Then as I said you can ask me, if you still have questions.
waitasec
Veteran Member
all while you ignore the fact that jesus was accused for saying he was god
was he god and why would it be an evil act for turning himself in as god?
did jesus say he was god? i don't understand what your argument is...
if it is yes then he should have turned himself in
if the answer is no, he didn't say he was god, what is your argument?
you have just put yourself in a corner and now i have to go learn something?
odd.
case closed.
The funny thing is that you you keep asking the same question that I already replied to.
Just go through your posts to see how many times you asked it, and how many times I answered it.
For the rest of your questions you are going to have to do some work on your own first.
Edit:
I'll give you some homework:
Read Gill's commentary on this chapter, and tomorrow ask me the questions that you still have.
Last edited:
kepha31
Active Member
matthew 27:11 Meanwhile Jesus stood before the governor, and the governor asked him, Are you the king of the Jews?
You have said so, Jesus replied.
Jesus acknowledges Pilates temporal authority to make a state declaration that Jesus is King of the Jews. "You have said so" is a rhetorical response to Pilates question, thats why Jesus didn't just say "yes". Pilate faces a huge dilemna. He doesn't want to kill him and he doesn't want to call him a king. Both happens. The events that followed changed the course of human history.
You have said so, Jesus replied.
Jesus acknowledges Pilates temporal authority to make a state declaration that Jesus is King of the Jews. "You have said so" is a rhetorical response to Pilates question, thats why Jesus didn't just say "yes". Pilate faces a huge dilemna. He doesn't want to kill him and he doesn't want to call him a king. Both happens. The events that followed changed the course of human history.
How much have you read about the anarthrous issue?
Can you explain that?
Shermana
Heretic
What's there to explain that you don't already understand? If there's no article, it is read as a singular indefinite, the English "a" is implied even if it may not exist in Greek, it implies something other than "The" in specifics.
How about you explain why they use the definite article first in 1:1b as well as 99% of other cases, and name 3 other examples where Calwell's rule can possibly be argued to apply other than John 1:1c.
kepha31
Active Member
Hasn't everybody?
When dealing with John 1:1, the JWs Kingdom Interlinear Version of the Greek Scriptures says the following in defense of the New World Translations rendering of and the Word was
a god.The God with whom the Word, or Logos, was originally
designated here by the Greek expression ό θεός, that is theos preceded by the definite article ho. This is an articular theos. The articular construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb points to a quality about someone.
Therefore, Johns statement that the Word, or Logos, was a god or divine or godlike does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same God himself.
From the explanation above, the JWs believe that Jesus is a god in the sense that he is godlike or an inferior god to God the Father. There are a couple of problems with this view.
First, their own Bible contradicts this view in Colossians 2:9 which states that in Christ all the fullness of the divine quality dwells bodily. In other words, Christ has all of the qualities of the divine and not just a part of it. The second problem with this is explained in the following section.
Can Jesus be referred to as the God (ho theos)?
The Jehovahs Witnesses say that in John 1:1 when St. John says and the Word was with God the Greek expression used for Almighty God in this verse is the God or (ho theos).
In their Bible encyclopedia entitled Insight On the Scriptures it says the following on page 54: Additionally, the word for god (Gr., theos) in its second occurrence in the verse is significantly without the definite article the (Gr., ho).Regarding this fact, Ernst Haenchen, in a commentary on the Gospel of John (chapters 1-6), stated: [theos'] and [ho theos'] (god, divine and the God) were not the same thing in this period. . . . In fact, for the . . . Evangelist, only the Father was God ([ho theos']; cf. ÞJohn Ü17:3); the Son was subordinate to him
(cf. ÞJohn Ü14:28).
The problem with this explanation is that in this same article in their Insight publication, the Jehovahs Witnesses admit that St. John uses the phrase ho theos to refer to Jesus. Notice the following:
On the occasion of Jesus appearance to Thomas and the other apostles, which had removed Thomas doubts of Jesus resurrection, the now-convinced Thomas exclaimed to Jesus: My Lord and my God! [literally, The Lord of me and the God (ho Theos') of me!].
(John 20:24-29) Some scholars have viewed this expression as an exclamation of astonishment spoken to Jesus but actually directed to God, his Father. Insight on the Scriptures page 55:thud:
Apologetics-Jesus Christ’s Divinity « Catholic Faith Defender