Did Jesus say he was God???

[LioneDea]

I don't even understand why we're debating over the meaning of these names. The meaning of Immanuel does not mean Messiah nor does it mean Yeshua and vice-versa. I'm not sure where you're getting this idea but it's not in any Lexicon or any Grammar nor is it scriptural. "You shall call his name Yeshua." is what it says. The writer of Matthew is wrong in his interpretation of the OT.

You can repeat this all you like but I've already shown that this is mistranslated and misinterpreted in Matthew.

Lione D’ ea: We controversial here is your said brother, why not be called Emmanuel, and why Jesus, because you explained, that not Emmanuel the Christ, because the call that they called in child is Jesus, so explained you return the verses confirming the prediction, it occurred to Jesus and not in others, there is the prophecy in Isaiah that in Matthew the Emmanuel means is Jesus, Jesus Christ is taught and who interpret the meaning of Emmanuel not Matthew, and the Messiah also equals is Christ in English language, if our interpretation is anointed, savior, do not you just change what I answer brother, because you adding the meaning what I state, one of the problems seen there so we are not understood, I said in my statement, I mentioned that Christ refers to Jesus, I'm not opposed to told you the meaning of Christ anoint, no problem there, but if you tell me, where from this idea, the answer, not from me, from that in writing, again prove I'm the one who first called Yeshua, I recognized the call Yeshua, but if your Yeshua is man and not God, that is false yeshua, you find proof , I was the first mention of Yeshua?

oremus Bible Browser
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.


Isaiah 7:14 (Yeshayahu - Chapter 7 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.

So, once again, I've given you a Christian translation and the Jewish translation and you continue ignore them. They're consistent because the translation is far batter than the KJV (Septuagaint).




Come on now. That's exactly what ("with child") means.

With child
"euphemism for pregnant"

With | Define With at Dictionary.com
Idioms
with child, pregnant.

Lione D’ ea: No problem with translation provided by your brother, the problem there is your understanding of the context that there is WTIH CHILD said, in paragraph brother, not yet pregnant young woman there, because it is prophecy in the future, because Mary is not human yet there, that's my specific brother, because the book of Isaiah is a book of prophecy, and knowledge for you, there WITH CHILD said paragraph does not mean that's pregnant already, if you think only the broad brother, can you not call, WITH CHILD there in the womb of the woman, also very stupid if we say NO, because the paragraph did not just any mention mother or young mother to if she is pregnant already, if you really forces you to say that the young-woman there is pregnant already, why the verse did not tell us “the mother or young mother is with child, why, give me a reason?

Proverbs 1:1
The proverbs of Solomon the son of David, king of Israel;

We find the same in Revelation. We know it's the Revelation of Yeshua which Yahweh gave to him to show John through the angel. (Rev. 1:1)

Lione D’ ea: Which said in paragraph, the wisdom of Solomon the son in David, or Solomon the wisdom of David, or Solomon said, I wisdom, which it read, and where the term YAHWEH you can read in Old manuscript?

 

[LioneDea]

I still don't understand a word you're saying.

EDIT: 666 posts! I am the devil until I make another post!

Lione D' ea: Sorry brother, I said if something is wrong.

Dude, I seriously don't know what the ***** you're saying. This post I am quoting is one of the only things from you I understand. What's up with you quoting yourself?

Lione D' ea: Maybe if you are talking about brother, you said, "What's up with you quoting yourself", presumably brother, confirming only that from the Bible I answer what you are ask, and not from ourselves, because brother, saith the Lord, our answer must be written, because that's the basis, for we know who is telling the truth, if any wrong in my answer brother, apologies i can offer, I have a limitation on grammar, I'm not like one there brother, filled his glass, while my cup is always empty, wisdom is all I need, not points.



(end.)

 

[Pink Top Hat]

Can God die?

Who was in charge of things from 3pm Friday till Sunday morning at the cave ?

 

[Dirty Penguin]

We controversial here is your said brother, why not be called Emmanuel, and why Jesus, because you explained, that not Emmanuel the Christ, because the call that they called in child is Jesus, so explained you return the verses confirming the prediction, it occurred to Jesus and not in others, there is the prophecy in Isaiah that in Matthew the Emmanuel means is Jesus, Jesus Christ

And this is all wrong. Taking a verse out of context, especially when trying to apply Old Testament stories/prophecies to future people/events, sets you up for failure if you don't understand the context of the story you're taking the quote from. Isaiah is no different. The prophecy was meant for King Ahaz and not talking about something that would supposedly happen 750 years later. This becomes quite clear when you read and understand the WHOLE story/context of Isaiah. It definitely becomes clear when you get to Isaiah 8:8 and 8:10.

See here --> (Immanuel - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)
"In particular Isaiah gives the prophecy to Ahaz as a sign that the two kings he dreads, Rezin king of Damascus and Pekah king of Samaria, will shortly be destroyed by "the king of Assyria" when Immanuel is still an infant. Most scholars identify this as being fulfilled by Tiglath Pileser III in 732 BCE, which leads some Christians to argue for a dual fulfillment."

"Rather than using the Masoretic text which forms the basis of most modern Christian Old Testament translations, Matthew's quotation is taken from the Septuagint."

"Scholars have other concerns with Matthew's reference to Isaiah; for instance, they argue that it is much more likely that Isaiah is referring to the far more immediate future, particularly as the text can be considered to be past tense—implying that the savior in question was already conceived when Isaiah was writing. Matthew also appears to have adjusted the meaning slightly, but in a significant way—although Matthew --- quoting the LXX --- uses the Greek term parthenos, usually translated virgin, Isaiah uses the Hebrew word almah, which translates as "maiden," "young woman," or "virgin" (as translated by the Alexandrian translators of the Septuagint in the 3rd century B.C.E.)"

"According to Rashi's reckoning Hezekiah would have been 9 years old at the time. Rashi interprets the verse as referring to a son of Isaiah, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, who is called Immanuel in Isaiah 8. With the birth of Maher-shalal-hash-baz comes the destruction of Damascus and Samaria, as Isaiah 7 predicts would accompany the birth of Immanuel"

Lione D’ ea: No problem with translation provided by your brother, the problem there is your understanding of the context that there is WTIH CHILD said, in paragraph brother, not yet pregnant young woman there, because it is prophecy in the future, because Mary is not human yet there, that's my specific brother, because the book of Isaiah is a book of prophecy, and knowledge for you, there WITH CHILD said paragraph does not mean that's pregnant already,

The word used is(Strong's 2030). It generally means the woman IS pregnant.

Stong's
Strong's Hebrew: 2030. ????? (harah) -- pregnant
Word Origin
from harah

Definition
pregnant

NASB Word Usage
child (5), conceive (2), pregnant (3), pregnant woman (1), pregnant women (1), woman with child (1), women (1), women who were with child (1), women with child (1).


Gesenius's Lexicon

adj. only found in fem. pregnant, with child, Gen. 16:11, 38:24-25, Ex. 21:22, with child, near to be delivered, 1Sam 4:19, always with child, Jerm. 20:17, (Pl.) Am 1:13,

So above are the definition of the word from two different Lexicons. I maintain, as I have shown, (almah) means young woman and not virgin. So it would appear that the child being discussed could be Isaiah's son (Mahershalalhashbaz) considering King Ahaz's son may have already been born and was a young boy at that time. We know Isaiah's wife wasn't a virgin because she already had a son (Isaiah 7:3).

Lione D’ ea: Which said in paragraph, the wisdom of Solomon the son in David, or Solomon the wisdom of David, or Solomon said, I wisdom, which it read

Not sure what you mean here.

and where the term YAHWEH you can read in Old manuscript?

I was referring to the opening of Revelation to show that the book of Proverbs read (The Proverbs of Solomon) just as the book of Revelation reads (The Revelation of Yeshua the Messiah). Yahweh is the tetragramaton commonly rendered as (LORD or God) in English.

 

[YmirGF]

Can God die?

Who was in charge of things from 3pm Friday till Sunday morning at the cave ?

I am always greatly amused when people place limits on what a supposed god can or cannot do.

*Wanders off, whist humming, "Bring in the clowns"...*

 

[Pink Top Hat]

If Jesus WAS God and God teaches man about death and dying. Then it would be very strange for GOD himself to die. What kind of message was that supposed to send to man?

The fact is Jesus was just a prophet not a god.

Anything else just doesn't make any sense.

 

[miss interpret]

If Jesus WAS God and God teaches man about death and dying. Then it would be very strange for GOD himself to die. What kind of message was that supposed to send to man?

The fact is Jesus was just a prophet not a god.

Anything else just doesn't make any sense.

When you consider the Jews wanted him crucified for saying he was God, I think we are safe to assume he said something to make them believe that.

 

[Muffled]

]Yes, that's what He said, but did He specify that way in which they are "one"?[/B] He prayed that His followers would be one and He and His Father were one, too. If that prayer were to be answered, would we all somehow be miraculously absorbed into a single substance that contained the Father, the Son, the Holy Ghost and all Christians? Or did He mean "one" in some other sense?

Herein lies your problem, that you are looking for a way for Him to be one when the statement is a blanket statement and covers all ways.

There will be no absorbtion. Jesus is already one substance with the Father as He has staed in His blanket statement. Christians who allow the Holy Spirit to be resident are one with God while observing in the background. ie How does a mind have two spirits? One at a time as a mind may not have two masters.

There is no indication that Jesus is being obsequius or using double entendre.

 

[Muffled]

Stop it...please. We've addressed this already....:slap:

You haven't addressed it but have circumlocuted it. Give one reason why you think Jesus is not one with the Father in all ways.

 

[Muffled]

Jesus (pbuh) born , and eat and go to toilet and tired and (killed as you believe )

God created Jesus (pbuh) as he created Adam without man or woman , at least Jesus (pbuh) created by woman .

can you expliane to us why there were more than 100 fake Gospels !!!? and the church choice only 4 of them ? maybe the other 96 Gospels are the true ?

look brothers , it's seems that the Orginal Gospel of Jesus (pbuh) , raped by many authors in that era .

Because the devil is a liar and does his best to cast aspursions on the word of God.

There is no reason to believe that we do not have the original gospel. Also we have the letters of Paul who having the Holy Spirit supports the gospel.

 

[Muffled]

If Jesus WAS God and God teaches man about death and dying. Then it would be very strange for GOD himself to die. What kind of message was that supposed to send to man?

The fact is Jesus was just a prophet not a god.

Anything else just doesn't make any sense.

The message is that God loves you enough to die for you.

That isn't a fact; it is an imagination.

Then your reasoning abilities appear to be deficient.

 

[Pink Top Hat]

The message is that God loves you enough to die for you.

That isn't a fact; it is an imagination.

Then your reasoning abilities appear to be deficient.

Jesus dying is not proof of GOD dying.

 

[LioneDea]

And this is all wrong. Taking a verse out of context, especially when trying to apply Old Testament stories/prophecies to future people/events, sets you up for failure if you don't understand the context of the story you're taking the quote from. Isaiah is no different. The prophecy was meant for King Ahaz and not talking about something that would supposedly happen 750 years later. This becomes quite clear when you read and understand the WHOLE story/context of Isaiah. It definitely becomes clear when you get to Isaiah 8:8 and 8:10.

See here --> (Immanuel - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)
"In particular Isaiah gives the prophecy to Ahaz as a sign that the two kings he dreads, Rezin king of Damascus and Pekah king of Samaria, will shortly be destroyed by "the king of Assyria" when Immanuel is still an infant. Most scholars identify this as being fulfilled by Tiglath Pileser III in 732 BCE, which leads some Christians to argue for a dual fulfillment."

"Rather than using the Masoretic text which forms the basis of most modern Christian Old Testament translations, Matthew's quotation is taken from the Septuagint."

"Scholars have other concerns with Matthew's reference to Isaiah; for instance, they argue that it is much more likely that Isaiah is referring to the far more immediate future, particularly as the text can be considered to be past tense—implying that the savior in question was already conceived when Isaiah was writing. Matthew also appears to have adjusted the meaning slightly, but in a significant way—although Matthew --- quoting the LXX --- uses the Greek term parthenos, usually translated virgin, Isaiah uses the Hebrew word almah, which translates as "maiden," "young woman," or "virgin" (as translated by the Alexandrian translators of the Septuagint in the 3rd century B.C.E.)"

"According to Rashi's reckoning Hezekiah would have been 9 years old at the time. Rashi interprets the verse as referring to a son of Isaiah, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, who is called Immanuel in Isaiah 8. With the birth of Maher-shalal-hash-baz comes the destruction of Damascus and Samaria, as Isaiah 7 predicts would accompany the birth of Immanuel"

Lione D’ ea: Let us read you cited the verse Isaiah 8:8,10 it say’s:

“And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel.

10 Take counsel together, and it shall come to nought; speak the word, and it shall not stand: for God is with us.” (Kng James Version)

Lione D’ ea: Who is Emmanuel in that time mention in below saying: "when Immanuel is still an infant", if Ahaz was meant for it and none else, therefore he is the sign mention in Isaias 7:14, so why in Isaiah 7:10-13 was said?

Moreover the LORD spake again unto Ahaz, saying,

11 Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above.

12 But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD. (jot)

13 And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? (King James Version)


Lione D’ ea: Why so?

The word used is(Strong's 2030). It generally means the woman IS pregnant.

Stong's
Strong's Hebrew: 2030. ????? (harah) -- pregnant
Word Origin
from harah

Definition
pregnant

NASB Word Usage
child (5), conceive (2), pregnant (3), pregnant woman (1), pregnant women (1), woman with child (1), women (1), women who were with child (1), women with child (1).


Gesenius's Lexicon

adj. only found in fem. pregnant, with child, Gen. 16:11, 38:24-25, Ex. 21:22, with child, near to be delivered, 1Sam 4:19, always with child, Jerm. 20:17, (Pl.) Am 1:13,

So above are the definition of the word from two different Lexicons. I maintain, as I have shown, (almah) means young woman and not virgin. So it would appear that the child being discussed could be Isaiah's son (Mahershalalhashbaz) considering King Ahaz's son may have already been born and was a young boy at that time. We know Isaiah's wife wasn't a virgin because she already had a son (Isaiah 7:3).

Lione D’ ea: In the context you provided, the young-woman is in a state of concieving, I said that the first place, because I determined that with child, is in the bosom of the young-woman, but before the woman conceived, she was a virgin during her youth, the basis we discuss brother is the context of Isaiah 7:14, but if you use a context like Isaiah 8:8,10, if you raise the passage in 3, it also occurred in Christ according himself, and we will expands again the discuss there, so my question is this, in Isaiah 7:14 the young-woman mention, are you disagree that she is a virgin, before she conceived, that’s it only?

Lione D’ ea: Which said in paragraph, the wisdom of Solomon the son in David, or Solomon the wisdom of David, or Solomon said, I wisdom, which it read

Dirty Penguin< I was referring to the opening of Revelation to show that the book of Proverbs read (The Proverbs of Solomon) just as the book of Revelation reads (The Revelation of Yeshua the Messiah).

Not sure what you mean here.

Lione D’ ea: Where we can read in Bible, Solomon is the Wisdom to prove your statement which is, he is mention in that Proverbs 8:22?

Yahweh is the tetragramaton commonly rendered as (LORD or God) in English.

Lione D’ ea: Do you acknowledged his name as Yahweh?



(end.)

 

[LioneDea]

I am always greatly amused when people place limits on what a supposed god can or cannot do.

*Wanders off, whist humming, "Bring in the clowns"...*

Lione D' ea: Wrong understanding your brother, because in the Bible, does not mean that God is almighty He can do everything, that is erroneous doctrine, first in our belief, why God can't do all which is, He is a God the Almighty, let us read why Titus 1:2 it say's?

"in hope of eternal life, which God, who never lies, promised before the ages began" (English Standard Version)

Lione D' ea: Therefore God cannot Lie, another verse God cannot do all in Hebrews 6:10 Read?


"For God is not unrighteous to forget your work and labour of love, which ye have shewed toward his name, in that ye have ministered to the saints, and do minister." (King James Version)


Lione D' ea: So then God is not unrighteous, therefore not all can God do, I hope you understand.



(end.)

 

[LioneDea]

If Jesus WAS God and God teaches man about death and dying. Then it would be very strange for GOD himself to die. What kind of message was that supposed to send to man?

Lione D' ea: What do you mean God teaches in man about death and dying, what supposed you mean He teach, because , what verse you referring?

The fact is Jesus was just a prophet not a god.

Anything else just doesn't make any sense.

Lione D' ea: The doesn't make sense there is the word you mention Prophet, because it doesn't mean the word prophet meaning MAN.


(end.)

 

[Dirty Penguin]

You haven't addressed it but have circumlocuted it.

No, what was ambiguous was your OP. I've been direct when it comes to John 8:58 or 10:33

Give one reason why you think Jesus is not one with the Father in all ways.

One (with) is not the same as one in the same. (See: John 17:21 and 23)

 

[Dirty Penguin]

Lione D&#8217; ea: Let us read you cited the verse Isaiah 8:8,10 it say&#8217;s:

&#8220;And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel.

10 Take counsel together, and it shall come to nought; speak the word, and it shall not stand: for God is with us.&#8221; (Kng James Version)

Lione D&#8217; ea: Who is Emmanuel in that time mention in below saying: "when Immanuel is still an infant", if Ahaz was meant for it and none else, therefore he is the sign mention in Isaias 7:14, so why in Isaiah 7:10-13 was said?

And this is talking about situation Israel was facing during a specific time. The sign to the non-believing King (Ahaz) was a sign he would see in his day. This is why I said read Isaiah all the way through into 8. Look at verse 8:7-8.

Yeshayahu - Chapter 8 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible
Therefore, behold the Lord is bringing up on them the mighty and massive waters of the river-the king of Assyria and all his wealth, and it will overflow all its distributaries and go over all its banks and it will penetrate into Judah, overflowing as it passes through, up to the neck it will reach; and the tips of his wings will fill the breadth of your land, Immanuel.


Do you now see what the KJV has done? The verse isn't talking about (a person) as the KJV says (he shall.....). What justification do they use for rendering those words to include (he and his?). None whatsoever. It is talking about the King of Assyria and his army against kings Rezin and Pekah

Isaiah 8:1-22 | Werner Bible Commentary
"Septuagint: therefore, look! The Lord is bringing up over you the mighty and abundant water of the River &#8212; the king of the Assyrians and his glory. And he will go up on every valley of yours and on every wall of yours.

In the Dead Sea Scroll of Isaiah, &#8220;my Lord&#8221; appears above the main line of text. Immediately below the correction, only the topmost strokes of the letters of the text are preserved. The divine name (YHWH) appears to have been present in the main text.

Commentary
YHWH would let the people of the kingdom of Judah suffer from Assyrian aggression, which would result in devastating the land as would the strong, swiftly moving current of the Euphrates River at flood stage. This would occur because they had rejected him as the dependable source of aid and turned to Assyria for help in dealing with the threat from kings Rezin and Pekah. The Assyrian king&#8217;s glory may be his military force in which he took pride and by means of which he attained the victories that provided the basis for his boasting. In the Septuagint, the focus is on the military campaign, with the invaders marching over all the valleys and scaling the walls of cities to conquer them."

As you can see the story is less to do about a boy being born to a supposed virgin 750 years later and more to do with what was happening in Israel during (that) time.

Moreover the LORD spake again unto Ahaz, saying,

11 Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above.

12 But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD. (jot)

13 And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? (King James Version)


Lione D&#8217; ea: Why so?

Again, I'm not sure what your question is here. The sign given was to Ahaz and all of the people of Israel. It was a sign that Ahaz and the people would see come to fruition in their time. It wasn't a prophecy that was to occur 750 years later.


Isaiah 7:13-14
And he said, "Listen now, O House of David, is it little for you to weary men, that you weary my God as well? Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.

Now do you see it? Isaiah was delivering the prophecy that the Lord (YHWH) would give the house of David a sign and it would be one they would see.

Lione D&#8217; ea: In the context you provided, the young-woman is in a state of concieving, I said that the first place, because I determined that with child, is in the bosom of the young-woman, but before the woman conceived,

If we looked at it either way with the assumption it was Isaiah's wife then she was a young woman that was not a virgin because they had already had a son.

so my question is this, in Isaiah 7:14 the young-woman mention, are you disagree that she is a virgin, before she conceived, that&#8217;s it only?

Yes because if it is talking about Isaiah's wife, which it appears to me that it just may be the case, then she was no virgin.

Lione D&#8217; ea: Where we can read in Bible, Solomon is the Wisdom to prove your statement which is, he is mention in that Proverbs 8:22?

I didn't say Solomon was the wisdom that is spoken of in 8:22. I said the Proverbs are (The Proverbs of Solomon). I said "wisdom" in Proverbs is personified as a female and the fact of the mater is..it is (see: Woman Wisdom: Bible | Jewish Women's Archive).

 

[URAVIP2ME]

And this is talking about situation Israel was facing during a specific time. The sign to the non-believing King (Ahaz) was a sign he would see in his day. This is why I said read Isaiah all the way through into 8. Look at verse 8:7-8.
Yeshayahu - Chapter 8 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible
Therefore, behold the Lord is bringing up on them the mighty and massive waters of the river-the king of Assyria and all his wealth, and it will overflow all its distributaries and go over all its banks and it will penetrate into Judah, overflowing as it passes through, up to the neck it will reach; and the tips of his wings will fill the breadth of your land, Immanuel.
Do you now see what the KJV has done? The verse isn't talking about (a person) as the KJV says (he shall.....). What justification do they use for rendering those words to include (he and his?). None whatsoever. It is talking about the King of Assyria and his army against kings Rezin and Pekah
Isaiah 8:1-22 | Werner Bible Commentary
"Septuagint: therefore, look! The Lord is bringing up over you the mighty and abundant water of the River — the king of the Assyrians and his glory. And he will go up on every valley of yours and on every wall of yours.
In the Dead Sea Scroll of Isaiah, “my Lord” appears above the main line of text. Immediately below the correction, only the topmost strokes of the letters of the text are preserved. The divine name (YHWH) appears to have been present in the main text.
Commentary
YHWH would let the people of the kingdom of Judah suffer from Assyrian aggression, which would result in devastating the land as would the strong, swiftly moving current of the Euphrates River at flood stage. This would occur because they had rejected him as the dependable source of aid and turned to Assyria for help in dealing with the threat from kings Rezin and Pekah. The Assyrian king’s glory may be his military force in which he took pride and by means of which he attained the victories that provided the basis for his boasting. In the Septuagint, the focus is on the military campaign, with the invaders marching over all the valleys and scaling the walls of cities to conquer them."
As you can see the story is less to do about a boy being born to a supposed virgin 750 years later and more to do with what was happening in Israel during (that) time.
Again, I'm not sure what your question is here. The sign given was to Ahaz and all of the people of Israel. It was a sign that Ahaz and the people would see come to fruition in their time. It wasn't a prophecy that was to occur 750 years later.
Isaiah 7:13-14
And he said, "Listen now, O House of David, is it little for you to weary men, that you weary my God as well? Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.
Now do you see it? Isaiah was delivering the prophecy that the Lord (YHWH) would give the house of David a sign and it would be one they would see.


I didn't say Solomon was the wisdom that is spoken of in 8:22. I said the Proverbs are (The Proverbs of Solomon). I said "wisdom" in Proverbs is personified as a female and the fact of the mater is..it is.

What female was created as the beginning of the LORD [YHWH] way?
However, he Jesus was the beginning of the creation by God.- Rev. 3 v 14.

So, the one speaking at Proverbs [8v22] is said to be created,
and created in the beginning of Jehovah's works before his works of old.
Verse 31 mentions that the heavenly created one's delight was with the sons of men.- Gen. 1v26

 

[URAVIP2ME]

When you consider the Jews wanted him crucified for saying he was God, I think we are safe to assume he said something to make them believe that.

Where did the Jews ever say that Jesus was saying that Jesus was God?_____

What does John 10 v 36 say but the Son of God.

What does John 19 v 7 say but Son of God

 

[Dirty Penguin]

What female was created as the beginning of the LORD [YHWH] way?

I think everyone is misunderstanding what "personified" means. I didn't say the speaker in Solomon was female. I'm saying whomever is speaking in Solomon in referring to "wisdom" in the feminine. We know Yeshua is never referred to in the feminine. Don't forget that anything you read in the NT has no choice to harken back to the OT. There was no "NT" in those days so the only scriptures the NT writers, whoever they were, had to go on were oral stories and the Tanakh.