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Did Jesus say he was God???

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Lione D' ea: How if I testify that statement when heavens and earth are not yet created the Son was there beside him and exist in (OT)..?

There ("WITH") but not (AS). But where does it say that Yeshua was with "God" before the creation of heaven? So far your scriptures, that I know of, only say Yeshua was with his god before the creation of Earth.


Lione D' ea: Actually in my previous answer...the Son is separate being in Father, I'm not believer in oneness, and the cited didn't say Jesus Christ is not God there...

He is separate ("from") the Father (his god). The only oneness they share is in purpose, meaning the son and all of "creation" does the will of "God". Additionally the quotes I reference (John 20:17 and Rev. 3:12) is where the biblical Yeshua EXPLICITLY says he has a god. "God" does not have a god.

Lione D' ea: I never say the meaning of young-woman is ONLY Virgin, because the the word young there is (Adj.)...

And this is why I don't rely solely on one translation and is another reason why I read from Jewish sources to see how they render the OT. When you change the translation like the KJV does and then theologians apply these OT stories to Yeshua it changes the context of the story significantly. This is why there's such a hot debate over Exodus 3:14 (The Septuagint translation) vs. the Jewish translation. Below I've listed the Jewish translation of (almah) and what it means in their language and how it should applied contextually. To lavishly translate it to mean "virgin" in places where it doesn't (i.e. Isaiah 7:14) in lieu of the context of Isaiah is dishonest translating.

Gen. 24:43 (Genesis - Chapter 24 (Parshah Chayei Sarah) - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Behold, I am standing by the water fountain. When a maiden comes out to draw [water], I will say to her, 'Please, give me a little water to drink from your pitcher.'

Exodus 2:8 (Exodus - Chapter 2 (Parshah Shemot) - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Pharaoh's daughter said to her, "Go!" So the girl went and called the child's mother.

Psalms 68:25 (Tehillim - Chapter 68 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Singers went first, minstrels afterwards, in the midst of maidens playing timbrels.

Proverbs 30:19 (Mishlei - Chapter 30 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
The way of the eagle in the heavens, the way of a serpent on a rock, the way of a ship in the heart of the sea, and the way of a man with a young woman.

Songs 1:3 (Shir Hashirim - Chapter 1 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Because of the fragrance of your goodly oils, your name is 'oil poured forth.' Therefore, the maidens loved you.

Songs 6:8 (Shir Hashirim - Chapter 6 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
There are sixty queens and eighty concubines, and innumerable maidens.

Isaiah 7:14 (Yeshayahu - Chapter 7 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.
Lione D' ea: You can't identify the context and text what it express if your translation you have is only one...

Above I've given multiple translations of the word and how it is used so you may have to clarify what you mean here.


because there is comparison which is the best to translate and you can acquainted what is the error there, there are errors in the context and text in Bible that we have now that is fact, now if there is doubt about the translation, first you must read the original Bible...


There is no such thing as an "original Bible". The codex Sinaiticus may be the oldest bible but it of itself is a copy of a copy of scrolls. We don't have any original scriptures. We even know of certain scrolls the bible talks about that may be lost in antiquity. See, we're all familiar with the bible and it's errors and even the fact that there are many translators that seem to just have gotten it wrong. Without a doubt the KJV is just one of many. It is very difficult to translate a language especially if you're translating to English but knowing the context of the story does help.

Lione D' ea: There is no problem in that cover, I am tested, can you show your bases...because I waiting...

Start here (Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia).

I don't mean to simply give you a web link because I've covered this subject a few times in this very thread. The information in the link gives the context of the story and even gives you translation. You quickly realize that this story has absolutely nothing to do with Yeshua being born 750 years later. Such a prophecy set so far to the future would have meant nothing to a non-believing king faced with pending military actions from his neighbors.

Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Verb tense and time of pregnancy

"Thus Jews understand that God indicated he was sending a "sign" in the days of Ahaz (who lived many centuries before Jesus). Isaiah wanted King Ahaz to wait for God to give him support in this troublesome time instead of making alliances with Assyria."
 
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Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
I and the father are one.

By making the claim that his god is the Father he is in essence saying to them he is the son. As you rightfully pointed out earlier, if you assert or say you are the son of "God" it is considered a blasphemy and is punishable by death. Muslims and Jews share this same respect. To associate anything with "God" is blasphemous. "God", whether it be in Islam or Judaism, has no son, no partners and no equals. The phrase at the end of 10:33 is Anarthrous Theos which should read a (a god). This makes perfect since considering his response was....(Is is not written your law "I say you are gods?"). The fact of the matter is he never called himself "God" nor did he even say he was "a god". They understood that calling yourself the "son of God" then you were saying you are a god (demigod).

He who has seen me has seen the father

He was no more than an Ambassador to his god.

John 3:34
For he whom God has sent speaks the words of God: for God gives not the Spirit by measure [unto him].

by claiming to be the Messiah, or the Son of God, plus the cumulative effect of his miracles, his sayngs, the resurrection all make him more than just a man, or even a man just touched by God.

Yes and No. Claiming to be the Messiah was not a punishable offense. One could be put to death for doing what may have been construed as "magic". Many thought the man was some sort of sorcerer possessed by a demon. That would get you put to death. When he "raised Lazarus from the dead" I don't think people sought to kill him. Some of these events just happened to be on a Sabbath. Yeah, doing anything like that on the Sabbath would get you killed. None of these events were tantamount to the people wanting to kill him because they thought he was blaspheming "God" by claiming he was "God" though. Remember, it was the claiming to be the son of "God" and working on the Sabbath is why they sought to kill him.

In theological terms he is the Incarnation of God on Earth....

But he wasn't. He was just a mere man who said his god worked through him. If your god worked through you that wouldn't make you "God". It would make you "God's" servant submitting to his will. Just as Yeshua said he did.
 
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LioneDea

Land of the rising sun
Quote:
Originally Posted by LioneDea
Lione D' ea: How if I testify that statement when heavens and earth are not yet created the Son was there beside him and exist in (OT)..?

There ("WITH") but not (AS). But where does it say that Yeshua was with "God" before the creation of heaven? So far your scriptures, that I know of, only say Yeshua was with his god before the creation of Earth.


Lione D’ ea: Doesn’t mean if there is no word “WITH” in the context meaning He is not with the Father, and doesn’t mean to us again if there is no word “AS” in the context meant to say He is not as the Father…if we are investigate even the word WITH nor AS did not appeared in context, you can considered that He was beside His Father, depends on the sentence if you are agree, to testify in Proverbs 30:4 let us read in multiple translation, this is what I meant that I am not refute any translations that it translate…

“Who has gone up to heaven and come down?
Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands?
Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?
What is his name, and the name of his son?
Tell me if you know!” (New International Version 1984)

“Who but God goes up to heaven and comes back down?
Who holds the wind in his fists?
Who wraps up the oceans in his cloak?
Who has created the whole wide world?
What is his name—and his son’s name?
Tell me if you know!” (New Living Translation)

“Who has ascended to heaven and come down?
Who has gathered the wind in his fists?
Who has wrapped up the waters in a garment?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?
What is his name, and what is his son’s name?
Surely you know!” (English Standard Version)



“Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?” (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: ETC. the cited testify that even there is no word you are referring, not only WITH nor AS which you considered He besides to His Father, but you must considered the COMMA, and the word AND, remember that brother, you must not stick 5 translations but lots of translation you have to basis, and compare it, and what is the MAJORITY, I am not refute your translations you had, don’t be biased you must acknowledge the Bible versions like in the above…like the verse saith:

“what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?”

Lione ‘ ea: Considered that little comma, and the word AND in the context because it is partaker in the commandments of the Lord, Matthew 5:18 let us read:

“I can guarantee this truth: Until the earth and the heavens disappear, neither a period nor a comma will disappear from Moses' Teachings before everything has come true.” (GOD'S WORD ® Translation)

Lione D’ ea: You cannot read the word comma and period there in other translations…remember I not refute in any translations or versions you call it…







Quote:
Originally Posted by LioneDea
Lione D' ea: Actually in my previous answer...the Son is separate being in Father, I'm not believer in oneness, and the cited didn't say Jesus Christ is not God there...

He is separate ("from") the Father (his god). The only oneness they share is in purpose, meaning the son and all of "creation" does the will of "God". Additionally the quotes I reference (John 20:17 and Rev. 3:12) is where the biblical Yeshua EXPLICITLY says he has a god. "God" does not have a god.


Lione D’ ea: I see what you are pointing to, but you don’t have to force Bible teach ABSOLUTE ONE, but I can guarantee you there is UNITE in ONE, HOW…let us read John 17:11 Read?

“And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.” (King James Version)

“And I am no longer in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in your name, which you have given me, that they may be one, even as we are one.” (English Standard Version)

Lione D’ ea: See that, do not force to input anything of what the verse tells it, you must not above what is written in each context, this is the one of the discipline to the readers how to read Bible I Corinthians 4:6 Read:

“And these things, brethren, I have in a figure transferred to myself and to Apollos for your sakes; that ye might learn in us not to think of men above that which is written, that no one of you be puffed up for one against another.” (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: You must not think above what the context tells you brother, do not put your own opinion in the scriptures, let the Bible opinion will follow if you are Biblical bases, let the Bible interpret itself, do not believe them, because there is verses that they don’t know what it meant, Bible never teach ABSOLUTE ONE meaning one BEING it is erroneous doctrine brother…
 

LioneDea

Land of the rising sun
Continually: #2

Quote:
Originally Posted by LioneDea
Lione D' ea: I never say the meaning of young-woman is ONLY Virgin, because the the word young there is (Adj.)...

And this is why I don't rely solely on one translation and is another reason why I read from Jewish sources to see how they render the OT. When you change the translation like the KJV does and then theologians apply these OT stories to Yeshua it changes the context of the story significantly. This is why there's such a hot debate over Exodus 3:14 (The Septuagint translation) vs. the Jewish translation. Below I've listed the Jewish translation of (almah) and what it means in their language and how it should applied contextually. To lavishly translate it to mean "virgin" in places where it doesn't (i.e. Isaiah 7:14) in lieu of the context of Isaiah is dishonest translating.

Quote:
Gen. 24:43 (Genesis - Chapter 24 (Parshah Chayei Sarah) - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Behold, I am standing by the water fountain. When a maiden comes out to draw [water], I will say to her, 'Please, give me a little water to drink from your pitcher.'

Exodus 2:8 (Exodus - Chapter 2 (Parshah Shemot) - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Pharaoh's daughter said to her, "Go!" So the girl went and called the child's mother.

Psalms 68:25 (Tehillim - Chapter 68 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Singers went first, minstrels afterwards, in the midst of maidens playing timbrels.

Proverbs 30:19 (Mishlei - Chapter 30 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
The way of the eagle in the heavens, the way of a serpent on a rock, the way of a ship in the heart of the sea, and the way of a man with a young woman.

Songs 1:3 (Shir Hashirim - Chapter 1 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Because of the fragrance of your goodly oils, your name is 'oil poured forth.' Therefore, the maidens loved you.

Songs 6:8 (Shir Hashirim - Chapter 6 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
There are sixty queens and eighty concubines, and innumerable maidens.

Isaiah 7:14 (Yeshayahu - Chapter 7 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.
Quote:
Originally Posted by LioneDea
Lione D' ea: You can't identify the context and text what it express if your translation you have is only one...
Above I've given multiple translations of the word and how it is used so you may have to clarify what you mean here.



Lione D’ ea: Actually brother I’m not refute any translations nor version you had it because I do that also, but brother don’t offend what the context like King James Version translate Virgin meaning it is error, No that is wrong brother, because if you analyze what verse state according in your translation:

“Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.”

Lione D’ ea: I have a question which written (young woman), I not refute this verse, didn’t in the law of Moses says, a young woman not found a virgin must die am I correct, what is my bases, let us read Deuteronomy 22:20 it say’s:

“But if this thing be true, and the tokens of virginity be not found for the damsel:

21 Then they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die: because she hath wrought folly in Israel, to play the whore in her father's house: so shalt thou put evil away from among you.” (King James Version)


Lione D’ ea: Are you agree with this, that a young woman can considered as Virgin also if we translate it?


Quote:
Originally Posted by LioneDea
because there is comparison which is the best to translate and you can acquainted what is the error there, there are errors in the context and text in Bible that we have now that is fact, now if there is doubt about the translation, first you must read the original Bible...

There is no such thing as an "original Bible". The codex Sinaiticus may be the oldest bible but it of itself is a copy of a copy of scrolls. We don't have any original scriptures. We even know of certain scrolls the bible talks about that may be lost in antiquity. See, we're all familiar with the bible and it's errors and even the fact that there are many translators that seem to just have gotten it wrong. Without a doubt the KJV is just one of many. It is very difficult to translate a language especially if you're translating to English but knowing the context of the story does help.


Lione D’ ea: There is such things “original Bible” that exist, what are does: Lexicon and Dead Sea Scrolls, are this such things is not original Bible for you, how about Codex Sinaiticus aren’t you trusted that things too, there are many original Bible that exist, are you refuting that all translations?


Quote:
Originally Posted by LioneDea
Lione D' ea: There is no problem in that cover, I am tested, can you show your bases...because I waiting...

Start here (Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia).

I don't mean to simply give you a web link because I've covered this subject a few times in this very thread. The information in the link gives the context of the story and even gives you translation. You quickly realize that this story has absolutely nothing to do with Yeshua being born 750 years later. Such a prophecy set so far to the future would have meant nothing to a non-believing king faced with pending military actions from his neighbors.

Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Verb tense and time of pregnancy

"Thus Jews understand that God indicated he was sending a "sign" in the days of Ahaz (who lived many centuries before Jesus). Isaiah wanted King Ahaz to wait for God to give him support in this troublesome time instead of making alliances with Assyria."


Lione D’ ea: And what is that support that Ahaz waiting give by God if that prophecy is for Ahaz?



(end.)
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Lione D' ea: How if I testify that statement when heavens and earth are not yet created the Son was there beside him and exist in (OT)..?

Lione D’ ea: Doesn’t mean if there is no word “WITH” in the context meaning He is not with the Father, and doesn’t mean to us again if there is no word “AS” in the context meant to say He is not as the Father…if we are investigate even the word WITH nor AS did not appeared in context, you can considered that He was beside His Father, depends on the sentence if you are agree, to testify in Proverbs 30:4 let us read in multiple translation, this is what I meant that I am not refute any translations that it translate…

“Who has gone up to heaven and come down?
Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands?
Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?
What is his name, and the name of his son?
Tell me if you know!” (New International Version 1984)

“Who but God goes up to heaven and comes back down?
Who holds the wind in his fists?
Who wraps up the oceans in his cloak?
Who has created the whole wide world?
What is his name—and his son’s name?
Tell me if you know!” (New Living Translation)

“Who has ascended to heaven and come down?
Who has gathered the wind in his fists?
Who has wrapped up the waters in a garment?
Who has established all the ends of the earth?
What is his name, and what is his son’s name?
Surely you know!” (English Standard Version)


I am very familiar with your scriptures. What I was trying to gather from you was a specific verse that show Yeshua was with his god "before" the creation of heaven. Proverbs 30:4 doesn't say that. If anything it strengthens my position that "God" and (the son of "God") are separate and not the same.

Mishlei - Chapter 30 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible
Who ascended to heaven and descended? Who gathered wind in his fists? Who wrapped the waters in a garment? Who established all the ends of the earth? What is his name and what is the name of his son, if you know?


Lione D’ ea: ETC. the cited testify that even there is no word you are referring, not only WITH nor AS which you considered He besides to His Father, but you must considered the COMMA, and the word AND, remember that brother, you must not stick 5 translations but lots of translation you have to basis, and compare it, and what is the MAJORITY, I am not refute your translations you had, don’t be biased you must acknowledge the Bible versions like in the above…like the verse saith:

But you may be confused as to what I'm referring to. I was originally referring to John 17:5 here --> (http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2843072-post6047.html)


Lione D' ea: Actually in my previous answer...the Son is separate being in Father, I'm not believer in oneness, and the cited didn't say Jesus Christ is not God there...

Actually Yeshua remains a separate entity before, during and after. In fact I've given you each and every quote from your scripture showing this. Even the outright explicit statement of him praying to his god declaring that his god is the one true god and he (Yeshua) is the Messiah that his god sent to relay a message of salvation to the lost sheep of Israel. (See: John 6:38, 17:3, 20:17 and Rev. 3:12). This is supposedly from his own mouth so how do you get that he is "God" from this?

Lione D’ ea: I see what you are pointing to, but you don’t have to force Bible teach ABSOLUTE ONE, but I can guarantee you there is UNITE in ONE, HOW…let us read John 17:11 Read?

“And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.” (King James Version)

But this is what we're getting at. The unity is not "one person". One of the reasons why not is due to the fact that this is a prayer to his god. He says outright that his god is the one true god, that he had completed a task his god had given him to do. The "in one" that he speaks of for the disciples is one of purpose because he was sending the disciples out to deliver the good news.


Lione D’ ea: You must not think above what the context tells you brother, do not put your own opinion in the scriptures

My opinions aren't even listed. I gave you scripture and solely the words from the mouth of Yeshua. I didn't give you the opinions of Paul, who never met him. Everything I listed as to what Yeshua said and taught is given from the perspective of Yeshua himself as laid out in the four gospels.

Lione D' ea: I never say the meaning of young-woman is ONLY Virgin, because the the word young there is (Adj.)

That's besides the point and has no bearing on the Hebrew word and how the Jews translate the word. A big part of the confusion is due to the unknown author of the book of Matthew incorrectly interpreting the OT trying to tie that verse to Yeshua and it has nothing to do with him.

Lione D’ ea: I have a question which written (young woman), I not refute this verse, didn’t in the law of Moses says, a young woman not found a virgin must die am I correct, what is my bases, let us read Deuteronomy 22:20 it say’s:

“But if this thing be true, and the tokens of virginity be not found for the damsel:

21 Then they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her father's house, and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die: because she hath wrought folly in Israel, to play the whore in her father's house: so shalt thou put evil away from among you.” (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: Are you agree with this, that a young woman can considered as Virgin also if we translate it?

I can agree that a young girl can be a "virgin" but the word used there in Deuteronomy for virgin is not (almah) like in Isaiah 7:14. Even in the KJV (Hebrew/Greek) the word used is (bethulah). So in Deuteronomy it's actually talking about a "virgin" but Isaiah is talking about a "young woman" who is (already) pregnant.


Lione D’ ea: There is such things “original Bible” that exist, what are does: Lexicon and Dead Sea Scrolls, are this such things is not original Bible for you, how about Codex Sinaiticus aren’t you trusted that things too, there are many original Bible that exist, are you refuting that all translations?


The Codex Sinaiticus is the (earliest known bible). It was written in the 4th century. There is no information of it being the "original bible". Up to a certain point all that existed were various scrolls. A lexicon is a learning tool and should not be confused as scripture. At best it's a dictionary of sorts. The Dead Sea Scrolls are just that...(Scrolls). The Dead Sea Scrolls themselves are copies. They should not be mistaken for originals. Additionally I think it is my own prerogative If I disagree with a translation. Case in point would be the KJV of the Bible vs. The New World Translation. I find value in both but there are linguist out there that come down hard on the NWT. So a translation is never the be all to end all which is why I use multiple sources.


Lione D’ ea: And what is that support that Ahaz waiting give by God if that prophecy is for Ahaz?

And I've given the link which covers it a little more in depth. This --> (Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) is a web link. Click the link and you will see the context. Christians have totally ignored the history and context of Isaiah and only focus on a verse here and there to try and link Yeshua to the sayings in that scroll. The problem is when you understand the situation of Israel at the time and true context of Isaiah you quickly realize it has nothing to do with Yeshua.
 

LioneDea

Land of the rising sun
I am very familiar with your scriptures. What I was trying to gather from you was a specific verse that show Yeshua was with his god "before" the creation of heaven. Proverbs 30:4 doesn't say that. If anything it strengthens my position that "God" and (the son of "God") are separate and not the same.

Mishlei - Chapter 30 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible
Who ascended to heaven and descended? Who gathered wind in his fists? Who wrapped the waters in a garment? Who established all the ends of the earth? What is his name and what is the name of his son, if you know?


But you may be confused as to what I'm referring to. I was originally referring to John 17:5 here --> (http://www.religiousforums.com/forum/2843072-post6047.html)




Actually Yeshua remains a separate entity before, during and after. In fact I've given you each and every quote from your scripture showing this. Even the outright explicit statement of him praying to his god declaring that his god is the one true god and he (Yeshua) is the Messiah that his god sent to relay a message of salvation to the lost sheep of Israel. (See: John 6:38, 17:3, 20:17 and Rev. 3:12). This is supposedly from his own mouth so how do you get that he is "God" from this?


Lione D’ ea: Let us read again Proverbs 8:22-30 it say’s:

The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.

23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.

24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.

25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:

26 While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.

27 When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:

28 When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:

29 When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:

30 Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;

Lione D’ ea: According in verse 30 the Son was with the Father, the Father and Son both prepared heavens and earth, so that in the beginning, God conversing a Person like Him also that have capacity to create as well, Genesis 1:26Read:

“And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness:” (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: Meaning God is not alone, if you notice the word LET US, God conversing a person like Him that can create everything, who is the image of God Hebrews 1:1-3 Read?

God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;


Lione D’ ea: The Son is the image of the person of the Father, both them existed before the creation, if we go back in Proverbs 8:26 it says:

While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.

Lione D’ ea: Meaning the Father and Son was existed before the creations, Proverbs 30:4 is true both Father and Son prepared heavens and earth because in Proverbs 8:22-30 the person speak is the Son of God, He witness the creation to prove it let us read Revelation 3:14 it say’s:

“And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;”

Lione D’ ea: The Amen, the faithful and true is Christ Jesus, to testify my statement in 1:5 of the Revelation again let us read?

And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

Lione D’ ea: Jesus Christ is the Amen, the faithful witness, John is right in 1:1-3 it say’s:

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 The same was in the beginning with God.


3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.”


Lione D’ ea: Therefore the Son existed in the beginning of the creations, He was with His Father, and He is God also, you cannot call Him God if He wasn’t existed before the creation, if the Son was not existed, according in verse 3 “without him was not any thing made that was made., so Proverbs 30:4 is true that:

Who hath ascended up into heaven, or descended? who hath gathered the wind in his fists? who hath bound the waters in a garment? who hath established all the ends of the earth? what is his name, and what is his son's name, if thou canst tell?

Lione D’ ea: Therefore there is no doubt in exodus 3:14 the Son existed in time of our Parents, Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, if what is the Father, the Son also...because like the Father the same yesterday, and to day, and forever also the Son Hebrews 13:8 Read:

“Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.”


Lione D’ ea: The Son is with the Father before the creations of everything, they’re their separate being, because Father beget his Son.

But this is what we're getting at. The unity is not "one person". One of the reasons why not is due to the fact that this is a prayer to his god. He says outright that his god is the one true god, that he had completed a task his god had given him to do. The "in one" that he speaks of for the disciples is one of purpose because he was sending the disciples out to deliver the good news.




My opinions aren't even listed. I gave you scripture and solely the words from the mouth of Yeshua. I didn't give you the opinions of Paul, who never met him. Everything I listed as to what Yeshua said and taught is given from the perspective of Yeshua himself as laid out in the four gospels.




That's besides the point and has no bearing on the Hebrew word and how the Jews translate the word. A big part of the confusion is due to the unknown author of the book of Matthew incorrectly interpreting the OT trying to tie that verse to Yeshua and it has nothing to do with him.


Lione D’ ea: John 17:1-3 let us read:

These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:

2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

Lione D’ ea: If you do not considered to know Jesus Christ according in this verse, you are anti-christ, because there is a little COMMA to denote as to know the Christ is God also, why is that one, because the one God is in heaven and the one God is in earth, why did He prayed, because He humbled himself, and follow the will of God not His will, because if he not follow the will of the Father, the Law given to Moses, prophets and the Psalms will not fulfill.

Continue
 

LioneDea

Land of the rising sun
Continue: #2


I can agree that a young girl can be a "virgin" but the word used there in Deuteronomy for virgin is not (almah) like in Isaiah 7:14. Even in the KJV (Hebrew/Greek) the word used is (bethulah). So in Deuteronomy it's actually talking about a "virgin" but Isaiah is talking about a "young woman" who is (already) pregnant.


Lione D’ ea: I don’t have doubt there brother, but for the sake for you let us read the Bible Dictionary:

bethulim: virginity
Original Word: בְּתוּלִים
Transliteration: bethulim
Phonetic Spelling: (beth-oo-leem')
Short Definition: virgin

NAS Exhaustive Concordance:
Word Origin
from the same as bethulah
Definition
virginity
NASB Word Usage
evidence of my virginity (1), virgin (5), virginity (4).

maid, virginity
Masculine plural of the same as bthuwlah; (collectively and abstractly) virginity; by implication and concretely, the tokens of it -- X maid, virginity.

Lione D’ ea: I don’t have doubt in the translation nor versions, how about Young woman?

almah: a young woman, a virgin
Original Word: עַלְמָה
Transliteration: almah
Phonetic Spelling: (al-maw')
Short Definition: maidens
NAS Exhaustive Concordance:
Word Origin
fem. of elem
Definition
a young woman, a virgin
NASB Word Usage
girl (1), maid (1), maiden (1), maidens (3), virgin (1).

damsel, maid, virgin
Feminine of elem; a lass (as veiled or private) -- damsel, maid, virgin.
see HEBREW elem

Lione D’ ea: See that brother, one point in there, it is not necessary be expert in both Hebrew and Greek if you have Bible Dictionary, your Job is nice you investigate each text keep it up but one thing I say to you, don’t disregard any translation nor versions because there is word of God contained there…




The Codex Sinaiticus is the (earliest known bible). It was written in the 4th century. There is no information of it being the "original bible". Up to a certain point all that existed were various scrolls. A lexicon is a learning tool and should not be confused as scripture. At best it's a dictionary of sorts. The Dead Sea Scrolls are just that...(Scrolls). The Dead Sea Scrolls themselves are copies. They should not be mistaken for originals. Additionally I think it is my own prerogative If I disagree with a translation. Case in point would be the KJV of the Bible vs. The New World Translation. I find value in both but there are linguist out there that come down hard on the NWT. So a translation is never the be all to end all which is why I use multiple sources.




And I've given the link which covers it a little more in depth. This --> (Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) is a web link. Click the link and you will see the context. Christians have totally ignored the history and context of Isaiah and only focus on a verse here and there to try and link Yeshua to the sayings in that scroll. The problem is when you understand the situation of Israel at the time and true context of Isaiah you quickly realize it has nothing to do with Yeshua.


Lione D’ ea: This is my Question, did you read the Original Bible you mentioned, if it’s ok for you can I ask you a 1 verse if you read that original Bible you meant?


(end.)
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Lione D’ ea: Let us read again Proverbs 8:22-30 it say’s:

The LORD possessed me in the beginning of his way, before his works of old.

23 I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.

24 When there were no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water.

25 Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth:

26 While as yet he had not made the earth, nor the fields, nor the highest part of the dust of the world.

27 When he prepared the heavens, I was there: when he set a compass upon the face of the depth:

28 When he established the clouds above: when he strengthened the fountains of the deep:

29 When he gave to the sea his decree, that the waters should not pass his commandment: when he appointed the foundations of the earth:

30 Then I was by him, as one brought up with him: and I was daily his delight, rejoicing always before him;

This has absolutely nothing to do with Yeshua. You are guilty of the common mistake in trying to apply various OT scripture to NT characters where they don't fit.

Let's see what happens when you try to use the KJV of Proverbs to substantiate your claim. Remember, context is always KING with Jewish scripture.

Proverbs 8:1-3
Doth not wisdom cry? and understanding put forth her voice?

She standeth
in the top of high places, by the way in the places of the paths.

She crieth at the gates, at the entry of the city, at the coming in at the doors.

The "wisdom" spoken of here is personified as female (in the KJV). The speaker isn't Yeshua. Much of this is detailed here from a Christian site --> (Who Is Wisdom in Proverbs 8?). In fact when you read one or two chapter before and after Proverbs 8 it should become clear to you that this is not Yeshua speaking.

3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

Lione D’ ea: If you do not considered to know Jesus Christ according in this verse, you are anti-christ, because there is a little COMMA to denote as to know the Christ is God also, why is that one, because the one God is in heaven and the one God is in earth, why did He prayed, because He humbled himself, and follow the will of God not His will, because if he not follow the will of the Father, the Law given to Moses, prophets and the Psalms will not fulfill.

Continue

The comma means nothing here considering it's an English usage. The Greek does not use punctuation. Yeshua is declaring that someone other than himself is the "one true god" and he is the Messiah that "God" sent.


Continue: #2
Lione D’ ea: I don’t have doubt there brother, but for the sake for you let us read the Bible Dictionary:

bethulim: virginity
Original Word: בְּתוּלִים
Transliteration: bethulim
Phonetic Spelling: (beth-oo-leem')
Short Definition: virgin

NAS Exhaustive Concordance:
Word Origin
from the same as bethulah
Definition
virginity
NASB Word Usage
evidence of my virginity (1), virgin (5), virginity (4).

maid, virginity
Masculine plural of the same as bthuwlah; (collectively and abstractly) virginity; by implication and concretely, the tokens of it -- X maid, virginity.


And this is the crux of the situation. This is a better fitting word to use if you're emphasizing (virgin or virginity). That's why it's predominately used in the OT to signify such. The focus in Isaiah and even 7:14 was not to focus on a virgin considering the young woman described was (already pregnant). She couldn't have been a virgin and pregnant already. If so this would make Mary's claim not unique.

This link --> (Isaiah 7:14: Translation Issues) is from a Christian site that honestly breaks the Isaiah 7:14 verse down concisely and confirms what I've been saying.


As you can see the young woman was already pregnant and about to give birth to a son. Young women of marriageable age was thought to be a virgin. This was implied so it went without saying. When they wanted to focus on virginity the word (bethulah) was used. A woman can be an (almah) without being a virgin.

Lione D’ ea: I don’t have doubt in the translation nor versions, how about Young woman?

almah: a young woman, a virgin
Original Word: עַלְמָה
Transliteration: almah
Phonetic Spelling: (al-maw')
Short Definition: maidens
NAS Exhaustive Concordance:
Word Origin
fem. of elem
Definition
a young woman, a virgin
NASB Word Usage
girl (1), maid (1), maiden (1), maidens (3), virgin (1).

damsel, maid, virgin
Feminine of elem; a lass (as veiled or private) -- damsel, maid, virgin.
see HEBREW elem

Lione D’ ea: See that brother, one point in there, it is not necessary be expert in both Hebrew and Greek if you have Bible Dictionary, your Job is nice you investigate each text keep it up but one thing I say to you, don’t disregard any translation nor versions because there is word of God contained there…

The problem here is you don't see. That's why I highlighted everything for you. Each definition of (almah) starts off with its most significant use of the word in your scripture while using as "virgin" always ranks last.

Example: Think of a bottle of cocoa butter lotion or a box of whole grain cereal. When you read the back label of some products if it doesn't start out with those ingredient so the product, regardless of what the front of the bottle or box says, has less of what it's advertising. It's the same with your definitions. They start off using a primary description of the word while listing (virgin) last. Meaning, the word has less to do with virgin.


An (almah) can be a virgin but she doesn't have to be. As the web article I listed above state...In Hebrew the context of the chapter dictates the translation and use of the word.


Lione D’ ea: This is my Question, did you read the Original Bible you mentioned, if it’s ok for you can I ask you a 1 verse if you read that original Bible you meant?
(end.)

What ('original bible") did I mention? I don't think I did. My point is that there are no (original bibles). Codex Sinaiticus (is the oldest known) bible. It is a copy of scrolls.
 
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LioneDea

Land of the rising sun
This has absolutely nothing to do with Yeshua. You are guilty of the common mistake in trying to apply various OT scripture to NT characters where they don't fit.

Let's see what happens when you try to use the KJV of Proverbs to substantiate your claim. Remember, context is always KING with Jewish scripture.

Proverbs 8:1-3
Doth not wisdom cry? and understanding put forth her voice?

She standeth
in the top of high places, by the way in the places of the paths.

She crieth at the gates, at the entry of the city, at the coming in at the doors.

The "wisdom" spoken of here is personified as female (in the KJV). The speaker isn't Yeshua. Much of this is detailed here from a Christian site --> (Who Is Wisdom in Proverbs 8?). In fact when you read one or two chapter before and after Proverbs 8 it should become clear to you that this is not Yeshua speaking.


Lione D’ ea: False…because the name Yeshua appeared when He was born of Mary in the flesh in Matthew 1:23-25 Read:

Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:

25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

Lione D’ ea: This is where he was born and appeared the named Yeshua, and the meaning of his name is Emmanuel which interpreted as God with us, why is that God…because He was existed when there were no depths was made yet according in Proverbs 8:23-24 it read:

I was set up from everlasting, from the beginning, or ever the earth was.

24 “When there were no depths, I was brought forth;”

Lione D’ ea: Therefore He was not yet in the flesh at this verse, and He was not yet sent by the Father to earth, why is that Proverbs 8:3 say’s:

Doth not wisdom cry? and understanding put forth her voice?

2 She standeth in the top of high places, by the way in the places of the paths.

3 She crieth at the gates, at the entry of the city, at the coming in at the doors.

Lione D’ ea: Does it mean for you the terminology of She is “personified as female”, wrong…because there is also terminology of She which did not denote in human female, nor animal female, how sure you are that God is a male or God is a female, give only one verse to testify your statement, but if you can’t testify your statement then you are a liar, judging me a guilty without your basis?



The comma means nothing here considering it's an English usage.

Lione D’ ea: Didn’t Matthew 5:18 saith that:

For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: Comma is considering in English usage according in the commandments of the Lord in this verse.

The Greek does not use punctuation.

Lione D’ ea: Because the book which you read is English translation, even there is no punctuation mark of the COMMA in Greek but if there is the word AND , still does it mean for you he is not considered to know, I thought you are good when it comes in grammar sad to say you Jews are KING in the context of the scripture I doubt it?

Yeshua is declaring that someone other than himself is the "one true god" and he is the Messiah that "God" sent.


Lione D’ ea: The verse did not tell us that Jesus Christ is not God here, why he state one true God, is because the Son was not in heaven, He was in earth which Father sent there, he is in the state of flesh and blood here.




And this is the crux of the situation. This is a better fitting word to use if you're emphasizing (virgin or virginity). That's why it's predominately used in the OT to signify such. The focus in Isaiah and even 7:14 was not to focus on a virgin considering the young woman described was (already pregnant). She couldn't have been a virgin and pregnant already. If so this would make Mary's claim not unique.

This link --> (Isaiah 7:14: Translation Issues) is from a Christian site that honestly breaks the Isaiah 7:14 verse down concisely and confirms what I've been saying.


Lione D’ ea: There is one thing you didn’t notice to focus, can you testify that there is man touch with Mary?


As you can see the young woman was already pregnant and about to give birth to a son. Young women of marriageable age was thought to be a virgin. This was implied so it went without saying. When they wanted to focus on virginity the word (bethulah) was used. A woman can be an (almah) without being a virgin.



The problem here is you don't see. That's why I highlighted everything for you. Each definition of (almah) starts off with its most significant use of the word in your scripture while using as "virgin" always ranks last.

Example: Think of a bottle of cocoa butter lotion or a box of whole grain cereal. When you read the back label of some products if it doesn't start out with those ingredient so the product, regardless of what the front of the bottle or box says, has less of what it's advertising. It's the same with your definitions. They start off using a primary description of the word while listing (virgin) last. Meaning, the word has less to do with virgin.


An (almah) can be a virgin but she doesn't have to be. As the web article I listed above state...In Hebrew the context of the chapter dictates the translation and use of the word.



Lione D’ ea: I read in other book, when it say virgin, meaning there is no things nor organ of the male insert in her organ, so are you refute in the prophecy of the scripture, that a young woman there is not virgin in Isaiah 7:14, because the word young-woman is attached in virgin?



What ('original bible") did I mention? I don't think I did. My point is that there are no (original bibles). Codex Sinaiticus (is the oldest known) bible. It is a copy of scrolls.[/QUOTE]


Lione D’ ea: There is, in my side you didn’t catch up what is my point…this is one why I believe there is original Bible exist, and copy from original scriptures, and what is that, the signature of the Living God in Bible, what is the signature of God in the Bible, Deuteronomy 18:22 Read:

“When a prophet speaketh in the name of the LORD, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which the LORD hath not spoken, but the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him.” (King James Version)

Lione d’ ea: The word of God absolute can occurs in reality through His prophets, but a prophets not in God which the thing not follow, that prophet speak presumptuously, one Example in Isaiah 40:22 in Hebrew Bible say’s:


“It is he that sitteth upon the circle of the earth and the inhabitants thereof are as grasshoppers that stretcheth out the heavens as a curtain and spreadeth them out as a tent to dwell in”


Lione D’ ea: Do you believe that the earth is Circle in reality, how true it is, aren't this is not word of God?


(end.)
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
Lione D’ ea: False…because the name Yeshua appeared when He was born of Mary in the flesh in Matthew 1:23-25 Read:

I agree because that's what your scriptures say. She was to call him Yeshua. She was never instructed to call him Immanuel and no one ever addressed him by the title.

Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

And it's wrong as I covered already. Whether you accept it or not is on you. The prophecy was for that day and time and it wasn't describing a "virgin". It was talking about a young woman that was already pregnant.

oremus Bible Browser
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.

The above is from the RSV Bible compiled by (Christian Scholars) from 50 denominations. (See link. --> Revised Version - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)

The Scholars who met and Rendered the RSV used the Codex Vatacanus and the Codex Sinaiticus (See Link --> Handbook for Bible Study - Lee J. Gugliotto - Google Books)


Isaiah 7:14 (Yeshayahu - Chapter 7 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.


Lione D’ ea: This is where he was born and appeared the named Yeshua, and the meaning of his name is Emmanuel which interpreted as God with us


See above. The writer of "Matthew" was simply wrong in trying to tie the birth of Yeshua to the OT, a prophecy that had nothing to do with Yeshua which was explained here (Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) and here (Isaiah 7:14: Translation Issues). One of them is from a Christian site.


Lione D’ ea: Therefore He was not yet in the flesh at this verse, and He was not yet sent by the Father to earth

And we saw that at John 6:38 he was in heaven as a separate being from his god. We saw at John 20:17 he says he has a god. We also see the ascended Yeshua who is back in heaven at Rev. 3:12 informing John he has a god. We know he remains seperate from his god after ascension because of Rev. 4 and 5.

, why is that Proverbs 8:3 say’s:

Doth not wisdom cry? and understanding put forth her voice?

2 She standeth in the top of high places, by the way in the places of the paths.

3 She crieth at the gates, at the entry of the city, at the coming in at the doors.

Lione D’ ea: Does it mean for you the terminology of She is “personified as female”,

Yes and I backed it up with commentary. The "wisdom" spoken of is not a physical person. Furthermore the whole context of chapter 7,8, and 9 should reveal to any reader this book has nothing to do with Yeshua. It's not even him talking. Other scriptural translations show that whomever is speaking at Proverbs 8:22 and 23 is saying their god (CREATED) them. So, by your contention, you're stating that this verse is Yeshua talking and saying that his god created him? Right? If so then the claim that he is "God" is false.

This bible is used by many trinitarians.
Proverbs 8:22 NIV -
“The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, before his deeds of old;"

Again, this is the RSV (Christian translated)
http://bible.oremus.org/
The Lord created me at the beginning of his work, the first of his acts of long ago.

This is how Strong's, a lexicon you've used in this thread, renders the verse.
http://studybible.info/ABP_Strongs/Proverbs 8:22
The Lord created me the head of his ways for his works.


wrong…because there is also terminology of She which did not denote in human female, nor animal female, how sure you are that God is a male or God is a female, give only one verse to testify your statement, but if you can’t testify your statement then you are a liar, judging me a guilty without your basis?

That's why I said (personified)
Personified | Define Personified at Dictionary.com
to attribute human nature or character to (an inanimate object or an abstraction), as in speech or writing.


Lione D’ ea: I read in other book, when it say virgin, meaning there is no things nor organ of the male insert in her organ, so are you refute in the prophecy of the scripture, that a young woman there is not virgin in Isaiah 7:14, because the word young-woman is attached in virgin?

No, because the use of the word in the OT in Hebrew does not denote "virgin" period. In the since of not having sexual intercourse the word (bethulah) is used. When speaking of a (young woman - almah) of marriageable age virginity is implied.


Lione D’ ea: There is, in my side you didn’t catch up what is my point…this is one why I believe there is original Bible exist, and copy from original scriptures

One, we don't have access to an "original" bible and two, you can't know that the Codex Sinaiticus was copied from the "original" manuscripts. At best all we can say for sure is that the Codex Sinaiticus is the oldest known copy of copy(ies) of scripture.

Now that's not diminishing its importance because with that codex we now know that there were a lot of scribe interpolations in current versions of the bible. It has helped to remove a lot of false declarations from the scripture (example: John 3:16).

“It is he that sitteth upon the circle of the earth and the inhabitants thereof are as grasshoppers that stretcheth out the heavens as a curtain and spreadeth them out as a tent to dwell in”


Lione D’ ea: Do you believe that the earth is Circle in reality, how true it is, aren't this is not word of God?

No. I believe that when the writer wrote that he wrote it from the perspective that the Earth was flat but that is a subject for a different thread.
 
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Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
I and me father are one. That pretty much does it.
Yes, that's what He said, but did He specify that way in which they are "one"? He prayed that His followers would be one and He and His Father were one, too. If that prayer were to be answered, would we all somehow be miraculously absorbed into a single substance that contained the Father, the Son, the Holy Ghost and all Christians? Or did He mean "one" in some other sense?
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Why be called a 'son' if he is supposed to be the 'father'?

We all know the relationship of a son to a father...they are not the same person, they are not part of a trinity. The Father creates a son and the son is dependent on the father for life. So its crazy to conclude that being called a 'son' equates to being a 'father'

Because there is a difference. In one instance (Son) He is in the flesh in the other instance (father) He is not in the flesh.

That is according to the Physical world. God is not physical.

I am not sure to what you are referring. Jesus is not dependant on the Father; He is one with the Father.

Granted it does not work in the physical world but it makes sense spiritually.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Yes, Jesus existed before his human life on earth. [Proverbs 8vs22-31]
Jesus had to have a pre-human heavenly existence in order for God to send Jesus to earth. A pre-human existence as the heavenly 'beginning creation by God' according to Rev. 3v14.

Although the Greek grammar root does say 'am' in the present tense,
at John [8v58] where the expression of past time appears in the sentence,
the present-tense verb can be translated as to what began in the past time and continues up to the present time which makes 'I am' as 'I have been'.

So, John [8v58] has more to do with grammar rules than doctrine.

Jesus did not exist before his conception. The Spirit of God in Jesus has always existed.
 

Godobeyer

the word "Islam" means "submission" to God
Premium Member
Jesus did not exist before his conception. The Spirit of God in Jesus has always existed.
Jesus (pbuh) born , and eat and go to toilet and tired and (killed as you believe )

God created Jesus (pbuh) as he created Adam without man or woman , at least Jesus (pbuh) created by woman .

can you expliane to us why there were more than 100 fake Gospels !!!? and the church choice only 4 of them ? maybe the other 96 Gospels are the true ?

look brothers , it's seems that the Orginal Gospel of Jesus (pbuh) , raped by many authors in that era .
 

LioneDea

Land of the rising sun
Originally Posted by LioneDea ' alt="View Post" class=inlineimg border=0 title="View Post" v:shapes="_x0000_i1025">
Lione D’ ea: False…because the name Yeshua appeared when He was born of Mary in the flesh in Matthew 1:23-25 Read:

I agree because that's what your scriptures say. She was to call him Yeshua. She was never instructed to call him Immanuel and no one ever addressed him by the title.

Lione D’ ea: Let us find out first who give the name Jesus Christ according in the scriptures, Philippians 2:9-11 Read:

“Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:

10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;”

11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: The God Father give His Son a name which above every name, the verse prove it that it instructed to Christ Jesus to testify my statement in Matthew 1:20-21 there was someone addressed Him to named the child Emmanuel instructed by the God Father, let us read:

“But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.

21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS:” (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: The angel of the Lord appeared with Joseph and said do not fear to take Mary as his wife, because at this hour Joseph is confusing to take Mary or not the reason was is he found Mary’s conceived that Knowing her there’s no man court her, but angel explain the situation that Mary’s conceived is of the Holy Spirit and she shall bring forth a son, this is the instructed of the angel to address him Jesus. Many now using the name Jesus in our era, but the meaning of Emmanuel is not for them…only in Christ, wherefore in verse 23 state:

“Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.” (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: That is the instruction and address of the angel of the Lord in His servant, HE Is not Female, he born as male…hope you understand.



Originally Posted by LioneDea ' alt="View Post" class=inlineimg border=0 title="View Post" v:shapes="_x0000_i1026">
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

And it's wrong as I covered already. Whether you accept it or not is on you. The prophecy was for that day and time and it wasn't describing a "virgin". It was talking about a young woman that was already pregnant.

oremus Bible Browser
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.

The above is from the RSV Bible compiled by (Christian Scholars) from 50 denominations. (See link. --> Revised Version - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia)

The Scholars who met and Rendered the RSV used the Codex Vatacanus and the Codex Sinaiticus (See Link --> Handbook for Bible Study - Lee J. Gugliotto - Google Books)


Isaiah 7:14 (Yeshayahu - Chapter 7 - Tanakh Online - Torah - Bible)
Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel.

Originally Posted by LioneDea ' alt="View Post" class=inlineimg border=0 title="View Post" v:shapes="_x0000_i1027">
Lione D’ ea: This is where he was born and appeared the named Yeshua, and the meaning of his name is Emmanuel which interpreted as God with us

See above. The writer of "Matthew" was simply wrong in trying to tie the birth of Yeshua to the OT, a prophecy that had nothing to do with Yeshua which was explained here (Isaiah 7:14 - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia) and here (Isaiah 7:14: Translation Issues). One of them is from a Christian site.

Originally Posted by LioneDea ' alt="View Post" class=inlineimg border=0 title="View Post" v:shapes="_x0000_i1031">
Lione D’ ea: I read in other book, when it say virgin, meaning there is no things nor organ of the male insert in her organ, so are you refute in the prophecy of the scripture, that a young woman there is not virgin in Isaiah 7:14, because the word young-woman is attached in virgin?

No, because the use of the word in the OT in Hebrew does not denote "virgin" period. In the since of not having sexual intercourse the word (bethulah) is used. When speaking of a (young woman - almah) of marriageable age virginity is implied.




Lione D’ ea: The translation didn’t tell us that she is pregnant there already, the context says that a young-woman is WITH CHILD, with child where us to refer, in the bosom of the young-woman which she carry, meaning the young-woman will in the state of conceiving, you cannot address YOUNG WOMAN there if she had a first-born child and conceive again…the fact is the translation did not word it MOTHER is she pregnant already which is you want to imply in the context that the out come is the young woman there have 2 child with here that’s why she is not VIRGIN there, you didn’t understand what the context tells you, because the young-woman mention there will conceive, Wherefore before the conceiving happened, the young-woman in cited is virgin, that is the context meant to us, that is the translation tells me here.



Originally Posted by LioneDea alt="View Post" class=inlineimg title="View Post" v:shapes="_x0000_i1028">
Lione D’ ea: Therefore He was not yet in the flesh at this verse, and He was not yet sent by the Father to earth

And we saw that at John 6:38 he was in heaven as a separate being from his god. We saw at John 20:17 he says he has a god. We also see the ascended Yeshua who is back in heaven at Rev. 3:12 informing John he has a god. We know he remains seperate from his god after ascension because of Rev. 4 and 5.


Lione D’ ea: Doesn’t mean the brother of Jesus Christ in the flesh wrote in 20:17 you conclude He is not God, to prove it the God Father says His Son is God Hebrew 1:8 Read:

But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, (King James Version)

Lione D’ ea: Does that mean the God Father saying unto His Son as God, meaning the Father is not God in this verse, therefore it is not meant to us if God declare unto his Son nor Son declare unto His Father the word God meaning there is one true God there which accept, both them are God because the Son is part of the Godhead of the Father, Biblical speaking it is not prohibited in the Bible two(2) God because both them existed, the Father and His Son in was.

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