Did Muhammad wish for his followers to believe in the Torah and Gospel?

[Dawnofhope]

It is sufficient proof that they abandoned the exalted nature of Aaron and his chosen lineage despite the clear proofs still there. In the sea scrolls, it's said the covenant only pertains to the righteous of the offspring of Aaron. So there was no question of it changing, since it was to Aaron's righteous offspring only.

Do you have a link from a respected source that shows this change between the text of the Dead Sea scrolls and the Torah in regards Aaron?

 

[Dawnofhope]

I mean you guys don't even accept something that all Muslims see clearly which is the day of judgment. I discussed a little about it, and saw how you guys play games with those verses. I believe there is no religion as dishonest as Bahaism as far I can witness in that it twists text to support their preconceived notions despite it being clearly other than their interpretation.

Sounds like projective identification.

Projective identification - Wikipedia

 

[InvestigateTruth]

Alright then. Yousaid "According grammatical rule".

So i asked a specific question. You didnt answer. So tell me mate.

which grammatical rule? Al azmunnuh ulthammuhu or alzamaan ulhaadhiru?

Which one?

I responded to that. The verses are Present Tense. It denotes, those people were present at the time of revelation. "Among them are....". Is a present tense. It is not past tense, thus, it has nothing with corruption or writing Iniil or Torat. Injil and Torat were available centuries before Muhammad.

 

[firedragon]

I responded to that. The verses are Present Tense. It denotes, those people were present at the time of revelation. "Among them are....". Is a present tense. It is not past tense, thus, it has nothing with corruption or writing Iniil or Torat. Injil and Torat were available centuries before Muhammad.

Salam.

 

[Faithofchristian]

Keeping in mind that Muhammad’s ministry was from 610-632 AD, the Torah and Gospel He refers to wouldn’t have been the KJV Bible. You may well be correct that the first English translation introduces distortions based on how Christianity was understood by the Catholic Church at that time. However the question is did Muhammad consider the available Torah and Gospel corrupt at that time and if so why? Muhammad refers to both the Gospel and Torah on many occasions within the Quran and speaks with great reverence about the works as well as Jesus and Moses. There is no passage where he is critical or dismissive of the Torah, Gospel, Jesus or Moses.

The Gospels and Torah were as you say were around before the KJV bible...
But yet the Gospels and Torah is what king James has translation into English..
So what you have is the Gospels and Torah was Incorporated into English into the king James bible..so no matter how a person cuts it the Gospels and Torah are still before the Qu'ran was even written.
All king James did was have the Gospels and Torah translated into English and then had them put into one book which is called the
king James bible.

What has come down is that Muhammad could neither read or write...
So what has come down is that Muhammad would go into Jerusalem and talk to Jews and Christians and then return to his house and either his wife or a friend would write down what Muhammad would tell them...
But then it all depends on whether or not Muhammad's wife or friend wrote down precisely what Muhammad would tell them.

But seeing Muhammad couldn't read or write...Muhammad wouldn't know any how. If they wrote down what Muhammad told them anyway..
Some where whether it was Jews or Christians...Muhammad didn't like either one of them..
And this is not hard to see. .if a person reads the Qu'ran.thats it's evidence how Muhammad talks down about the Jews and Christians as infidels.

And one other thing that is certain..How would Muhammad know anything about the Gospels..seeing that Muhammad couldn't read or write..
All Muhammad had is what he was either told or over heard what Jews or Christians would be talking about with each other about the Gospels and Torah..
Then Muhammad took what he was told and over heard and had them written down in what is called the Qu'ran..seeing that Muhammad couldn't read or write..So Muhammad had to try and remember what was told to him..Maybe this is why in the Qu'ran the Gospels and Torah are mix in together. Because Muhammad couldn't remember what he was told whether what he was told went with the Gospels or Torah.
Alot of things in the Qu'ran Muhammad had taken the Gospels and Torah and twisted them into saying what he wanted them to say.
This is why a lot of things that are written down in the Qu'ran were taken from the Gospels and Torah..
But Muhammad twisted them just enough to make them into saying what he wants them to say.
Compare the Gospels and Torah and the Qu'ran and a person will find the Qu'ran copied the Gospels and Torah.
Many people will say how do you not know if the Gospels and Torah didn't copy the Qu'ran.
That's easy to know that the Qu'ran copied the Gospels and Torah.
First the Torah out dates the Qu'ran about
4000 years. the Qu'ran was written back around 625 A.D.
and the Gospels out dates the Qu'ran about
625 years.
So who copied who. the Qu'ran copied the Gospels and Torah.
As I have all 3 the Gospels and Torah and the Qu'ran. to compare to each other.
And it's evidence to see who copied who.
The Qu'ran copied the Gospels and Torah.

 

[Dawnofhope]

There 2 aspects of this case
First Aspect :
Yes we must believe in previous books. Precisely, Moslems should believe in previous book, If he doesn't, then he's not Moslem.
Previous books are not only Torah and Injeel but all books inspired to all prophets even that neither the books nor the believers exist today.
But believing in a book is something and practicing what is in it is something else.
For the seek of discussion, suppose that the original book (Torah and Injeel not new and old Testimony) exists, we wouldn't practice every command and avoid every haram. Allah said in Quran that every prophet has his people Sharia (Laws).
Moselms should believe in previous books but don't practice whatsoever in it.
Our obligatory believe is not more than, we believe that there is a book called Torah have been inspired to Mosa, Injeel to Isa Almaseeh, Almazameer to Dawood, Alsohf to Ibraheem.

I’m in agreement with your first point. Its important to consider a two thousand year plus span from the Torah to the Quran. The societal conditions changed and laws that were relevant for one time and people may not have been relevant for another time and period.

Second Aspect :
Alhamd l Allah, Modern studies proofed that historically and linguistically that the Bible have changed all over the history.

Once the main Biblical canon was agreed on during the 4th century AD then little changed.

Textual Criticism science proofed what have and still many Christians ignore till date.
Almaseeh's book that we believe in is called Injeel, it's an inspired book like Torah and Quran but what we've today is a totally different. We've 4 historical books written by anonymous 4 persons which have been given name at the end of the second century, another +25 messages half of them said it's written by Paul who didn't see Almaseeh.

It doesn’t take away from the authenticity of what was written and made its way into the New Testament.

Textual Criticism proofed Islamic view as it proofed that there is another disappeared source "Q source" who might be the original bible that the 4 Gospels writers have copied from it. This Q source might be the original Injeel
Textual Criticism also proofed that the number of variants between copies are about 400-500 thousands which is much more the number of words of the bible itself.

There is the Revelation of Christ that was passed on initially through oral traditions then eventually written down based on the accounts of those who witnessed the Life and Teachings of Christ. So we have four perspectives as well as a fifth unknown Q-source. They compliment each other and provide an excellent account for future generations. The textural variation is exaggerated in an attempt to discredit the Gospel and Torah, the same one Muhammad spoke of that was in existence during the seventh century.

I say that these massive changes in New testimony are on Gospels are much higher than what happened on Torah. But still some noted changes in Torah.

It would be fair to say we don’t have the same degree of reliability with the Gospels as we do with the Quran. However why would God have revealed the Gospel through Christ only to have the Christians deprived of this same Gospel and left bereft until the advent of Muhammad? What just and loving God would act in such a manner. Regardless of problems highlighted throughout modern scholarship the beauty and capacity of the Gospel’s power to transform the lives of so many generations remains to this day.

What were existed in Prophet Mohamed's life while Quran was still inspired?
First : Allah told in Quran that they've changed the books.
Second : It doesn't mean that all books existed in prophet Mohamed's era were useless and should be totally avoided.
Prophet Mohamed himself said that we could narrate what have been revealed to Jews and Christians with care:

• Wisdom, History, names of some persons are not named in Quran
• No for anything contradicts with Quran like Unitarian, bad stories about prophets,,,,

Even within this 1300 years the books have changed a lot. For example, I don't have any references for the books that Arab Jews and Christians were using. It's also proofed historically that most of Arab Christians were not Trinityrian

Clearly the Gospel and Torah have been an inspiration for Western Civilisation that has eclipsed Islamic Civilisation. Islam at one time was the greatest civilisation on the planet through the Islamic Golden Age. This was to a large extent due to the openness of successive Caliphates to new ideas from different parts of the world and bygone civilisations. Islam went into a long slow decline through the Ottoman Empire as the West flourished.

In Summary:

• We must believe that the books inspired to previous prophets
• These books have been changed as Allah told us
• Even if they exist and not changed, we're not practice what are in it
• Scientifically and Historically Bible has changed even since prophet Mohamed was alive
• It doesn't mean that we reject all Bible but we can use wisdom and history verses

Regards

I don’t believe there is any mention in the Quran of the Torah and Gospel being changed from the original.

Thanks for your post all the same.

 

[Link]

The Quran disagrees on what is said about Aaron and Talut in the Torah.

 

[Limo]

I’m in agreement with your first point. Its important to consider a two thousand year plus span from the Torah to the Quran. The societal conditions changed and laws that were relevant for one time and people may not have been relevant for another time and period.

Allah said in Quran 5:48 "And We have revealed to you, [O Muhammad], the Book in truth, confirming that which preceded it of the Scripture and as a criterion over it. So judge between them by what Allah has revealed and do not follow their inclinations away from what has come to you of the truth. To each of you We prescribed a law and a method."

Once the main Biblical canon was agreed on during the 4th century AD then little changed.

Oh, my fired Biblical Canon affected the scriptures but didn't put an end for scripture changes. Vice Versa, many textual variations found after Canon to support it.
Also Canon was not finalized in Nicaea Council 325 CE. As Holy spirit was added to the Trinity in 381 CE. The Canon is considered finalized only in 589, the Third Council of Toledo i
One of the most famous change in the Gospels is "Johannine Comma" John 5:7-8
Can you imagine that the first appearance in Bible is in 1522 CE ?


John 5:7-8
7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

It doesn’t take away from the authenticity of what was written and made its way into the New Testament.

It does, severely does. The 4 books :

• Are not an inspiration to Almaseeh as Quran and Torah
• Are not sayings of Almaseeh like Hadeethes
• None of them is matching the Injeel in Quran which is a 100% Revelation from Allah to Almaseeh
• Are historical books (like Islamic Seera Books)
• It has some from original Injeel but can't be considered Injeel from Islamic perspective
• It's names are like some of Almaseeh's disciples but for sure they didn't wrote them
• It doesn't have any chain of narrators, even the writers are unknown
• The writer of luke himself have written his book to a friend. How can this book considered authentic to Almaseeh ?

There is the Revelation of Christ that was passed on initially through oral traditions then eventually written down based on the accounts of those who witnessed the Life and Teachings of Christ. So we have four perspectives as well as a fifth unknown Q-source. They compliment each other and provide an excellent account for future generations. The textural variation is exaggerated in an attempt to discredit the Gospel and Torah, the same one Muhammad spoke of that was in existence during the seventh century.

Agree with you that the original sayings of Almaseeh or the Injeel were handed oral and written. The problems are:

• They didn't handle in care, no chain of narration. Then these books have no authentication at all
• Not only atheist scholars but also many Christian scholars believe that the 4 gospels were not written by eye witness at all especially John
• The writers of these books are completely unknown. Actually they get the names only in the second half of second century
• Even these 4 books were not copied in care. Vice versa, there are many intentional variations
• They are not complementing each others at all, vice versa there are many contradictions that can't be reconciled at all. It should be either one of the book is wrong or both. Examples:
  • Genealogies of Jesus in Luke contradicts what is in Mathew, From Ibrahim to Adam differs from whatever in Old Testimony
  • The story of Crucifixion and resurrection is totally different between Gospels:
    • Who tries Jesus Pilate or Herod?
    • Did the 2 thieves hate Jesus or one hate Jesus and the other asked for salvation?
    • Was Jesus unhappy ""My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" or he was happy and tels mother and disciples love or accepted ""Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit."?
    • Were there an earthquick, and zombies and saits waked up from graves or not?

It would be fair to say we don’t have the same degree of reliability with the Gospels as we do with the Quran. However why would God have revealed the Gospel through Christ only to have the Christians deprived of this same Gospel and left bereft until the advent of Muhammad? What just and loving God would act in such a manner. Regardless of problems highlighted throughout modern scholarship the beauty and capacity of the Gospel’s power to transform the lives of so many generations remains to this day.

This is a very good question "why would God have revealed the Gospel through Christ only":

• It's normal with all prophets that the book is revealed to the prophet and then prophet teach the book to the believers
• The 4 Gospels are not the only books but there were hundreds but all of these books have some of the original revelation not all of it
• So, in Mosa and Mohamed cases, Allah revealed Torah and Quran to Mosa and Mohamed only then they tells the companions who handled with care

The answer of the second part of the question "to have the Christians deprived of this same Gospel and left bereft until the advent of Muhammad?":

• The denomination Christians are not the only Christians existed
• There were a few (we know today) Unitarian Christians many of them were Jews
• These Jewish Unitarian Christians kept Mosa Law (As per Quran story about Christians).They believe in Almaseeh the only human
• Unfortunately their books have been completely lost

Clearly the Gospel and Torah have been an inspiration for Western Civilisation that has eclipsed Islamic Civilisation. Islam at one time was the greatest civilisation on the planet through the Islamic Golden Age. This was to a large extent due to the openness of successive Caliphates to new ideas from different parts of the world and bygone civilisations. Islam went into a long slow decline through the Ottoman Empire as the West flourished.

Actually, None can deny the impact of the Gospels on the Christian western world. However many people now hate the naming of "Christian west" and they think that the west is secular. Which is not true.
Although the West have left the Biblical Law and theology and many people are atheist now but they didn't abandoned the loyalty to Christianity and it's traditional prejudges/thoughts on Islam and Moslems

I don’t believe there is any mention in the Quran of the Torah and Gospel being changed from the original.

Allah in Quran said about people of the book 3 issues abut thier books but most of them about Jews and Torah:

• Intentionally distort the Torah : 2:75 "Do you covet [the hope, O believers], that they would believe for you while a party of them used to hear the words of Allah and then distort the Torah after they had understood it while they were knowing?
• Allegation of knowledge of Torah : 2:78 "And among them are unlettered ones who do not know the Scripture except in wishful thinking, but they are only assuming."
• Intentionally distort the Torah : 2:79 "So woe to those who write the "scripture" with their own hands, then say, "This is from Allah," in order to exchange it for a small price. Woe to them for what their hands have written and woe to them for what they earn.
• Portion is forgotten : 5:13"So for their breaking of the covenant We cursed them and made their hearts hard. They distort words from their [proper] usages and have forgotten a portion of that of which they were reminded. And you will still observe deceit among them, except a few of them. But pardon them and overlook [their misdeeds]. Indeed, Allah loves the doers of good
• Distortion of words beyond their [proper] usages: 5:41 "O Messenger, let them not grieve you who hasten into disbelief of those who say, "We believe" with their mouths, but their hearts believe not, and from among the Jews. [They are] avid listeners to falsehood, listening to another people who have not come to you. They distort words beyond their [proper] usages, saying "If you are given this, take it; but if you are not given it, then beware." But he for whom Allah intends fitnah - never will you possess [power to do] for him a thing against Allah . Those are the ones for whom Allah does not intend to purify their hearts. For them in this world is disgrace, and for them in the Hereafter is a great punishment

Regarding the changes of Injeel , the strongest evidences are the Quran verses that decline Trinity, Divine of Jesus, Crucifixion, and Resurrection which are the pillars of the Gospels and letters.

Thanks for your post all the same.

Sorry for long response but I couldn't use shorter
My Regards

 

[Godobeyer]

My point is about religious prejudice and racism. We should avoid portraying one group based on race or religion as being so perverse they would corrupt their sacred writings yet portray another group as being less perverse that they wouldn’t act in such a manner. Your view sets Muslims above Christians and Jews in regards moral standards. Besides that where is the evidence the Jews and Christians corrupted the Torah and Gospel?

Everyone believe his view is true so above the others.
The matriel evidence not exist, I need time machine to prove that

 

[Niblo]

Following.

 

[Seek truth]

So why would a Hebrew text have an Arabic name Muhammad? Do you think the Jews removed the name before or after Muhammad appeared?



So how does that relate to the Jews removing the word Muhammad from the Torah?

The Jews use a cind of code language in the Torah. They used that cind of code language to hide the name of the prophet Muhammed peace be upon him. When you use the code on the verse that contains the name of the prophet Muhammed peace be upon him, which they hide, you can see that it is the name Muhammed. And they did this for a lot of verses. It's a little bit difficult for me to explain it in English, because I'm not that good in English.

Read the Quran; surah Al Nisa verse 44-46 (and I recommend you to read further)

 

[ClimbingTheLadder]

In the Holy Quran it is written that Muhammad (PBUH) said:

“If they (Jews and Christians) had observed the Torah and the Gospel and that which was revealed unto them from their Lord, they would have enjoyed happiness from every side. Among them there are people on the right course but many of them are of evil conduct.”
(Quran 5:66)

Further;

Say, "O People of the Scripture, you are [standing] on nothing until you uphold [the law of] the Torah, the Gospel, and what has been revealed to you from your Lord." And that which has been revealed to you from your Lord will surely increase many of them in transgression and disbelief. So do not grieve over the disbelieving people.
(Quran 5:68)

It would appear Muslims are commanded in the Quran 4:136, to believe in the books God revealed to the Jews and the Christians.

O you who have believed, believe in Allah and His Messenger and the Book that He sent down upon His Messenger and the Scripture which He sent down before. And whoever disbelieves in Allah, His angels, His books, His messengers, and the Last Day has certainly gone far astray.

Yet most Muslims believe the Torah and Gospel the Jews and Christians hold in their possession to be corrupted and not the Torah and Gospel Muhammad spoke of.

Is the Gospel and Torah the Christians and Jews possessed in the time of Muhammad so different from today that it could be considered corrupted? If the Gospel and Torah was corrupted in Muhammad’s day, why is this never mentioned in the Quran?

Why do you only mention the "Torah" and "Gospel" (fallaciously equating them with the compilations of texts in Judaism and Christianity) but not other books mentioned like the Zaboor, the Book of Abraham, the Book of Noah, the Book of John the Baptist, etc?

 

[Dawnofhope]

Why do you only mention the "Torah" and "Gospel" (fallaciously equating them with the compilations of texts in Judaism and Christianity) but not other books mentioned like the Zaboor, the Book of Abraham, the Book of Noah, the Book of John the Baptist, etc?

Because none of the other books you mention are in existence. The Gospel and Torah clearly do exist now as they did during the time of Muhammad.

 

[Link]

Because none of the other books you mention are in existence. The Gospel and Torah clearly do exist now as they did during the time of Muhammad.

And why aren't they in existence?

 

[ClimbingTheLadder]

Because none of the other books you mention are in existence. The Gospel and Torah clearly do exist now as they did during the time of Muhammad.

Torah is a really contentious topic, Moses received the Torah at Mount Sinai, so clearly he didn't receive the Pentateuch (in which records him receiving it), lol. But an argument could be put forth about Deuteronomy being the "book of Moses" yes.
Torah itself though is a term that means a lot of things in Judaism, not just the Pentateuch, so be mindful and take that into consideration (aka, don't be like a Christian and be illiterate about it).

Gospel is very clearly not though. Jesus was not 'revealed' four biographies about his life from four different pre-Christian communities with differing views about Christology.
Jesus' gospel was not his biography, LMAO.

 

[Dawnofhope]

Torah is a really contentious topic, Moses received the Torah at Mount Sinai, so clearly he didn't receive the Pentateuch (in which records him receiving it), lol. But an argument could be put forth about Deuteronomy being the "book of Moses" yes.
Torah itself though is a term that means a lot of things in Judaism, not just the Pentateuch, so be mindful and take that into consideration (aka, don't be like a Christian and be illiterate about it).

Gospel is very clearly not though. Jesus was not 'revealed' four biographies about his life from four different pre-Christian communities with differing views about Christology.
Jesus' gospel was not his biography, LMAO.

You’re making it complicated, whereas its simple.

The Arabic word Injil (إنجيل) as found in Islamic texts, and now used also by Muslim non-Arabs and Arab non-Muslims, is derived from the Syriac Aramaicword awongaleeyoon (ܐܘܢܓܠܝܘܢ) found in the Pe****ta(Syriac translation of the Bible), which in turn derives from the Greek word euangelion(Εὐαγγέλιον) of the originally Greek language New Testament, where it means "good news" (from Greek "Εὐ αγγέλιον"; Old English "gōdspel"; Modern English "gospel", or "evangel" as an archaism, cf. e.g. Spanish "evangelio") The word Injil occurs twelve times in the Quran.

Gospel in Islam - Wikipedia

Similarly the word Gospel is used as a singular Gospel throughout the New Testament.

And Jesus went about all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospelof the kingdom, and healing every sickness and every disease among the people.
Matthew 9:35

And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
Matthew 24:14

But as it is written, To whom he was not spoken of, they shall see: and they that have not heard shall understand.
Romans 15:21

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
1 Colossians 1:17

So when we talk about the Gospel of Christ we mean the Evangel or the four Gospels that had been firmly established as Christian canon for several hundred years before Muhammad emerged from the Arabian Peninsula. There was simply no other Gospel around at that stage to which Muhammad makes reference.

 

[Dawnofhope]

And why aren't they in existence?

There were four Revelations Muhammad references. The Quran, the Gospel, the Torah and Zabur. The Zabur is mentioned only three times whereas the Injil is mentioned 12 times and the Tawrat 18 times. The emphasis is definitely on the Tawrat and Injil as opposed the Zabur. Who do you think Revealed the Zabur. In regards the Gospel its unmistakably associated with the Revelation of Jesus, Jesus is mentioned directly and indirectly 187 times in the Quran. He is the most mentioned person in the Quran.

Jesus in Islam - Wikipedia

Moses is mentioned 135 times in the Quran.

Moses in Islam - Wikipedia

Whoever Revealed the Zabur simply gets nowhere near as much attention as Jesus and Moses.

 

[Niblo]

You’re making it complicated, whereas its simple.

The Arabic word Injil (إنجيل) as found in Islamic texts, and now used also by Muslim non-Arabs and Arab non-Muslims, is derived from the Syriac Aramaicword awongaleeyoon (ܐܘܢܓܠܝܘܢ) found in the Pe****ta(Syriac translation of the Bible), which in turn derives from the Greek word euangelion(Εὐαγγέλιον) of the originally Greek language New Testament, where it means "good news" (from Greek "Εὐ αγγέλιον"; Old English "gōdspel"; Modern English "gospel", or "evangel" as an archaism, cf. e.g. Spanish "evangelio") The word Injil occurs twelve times in the Quran.

Gospel in Islam - Wikipedia

Similarly the word Gospel is used as a singular Gospel throughout the New Testament.

And Jesus went about all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospelof the kingdom, and healing every sickness and every disease among the people.
Matthew 9:35

And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
Matthew 24:14

But as it is written, To whom he was not spoken of, they shall see: and they that have not heard shall understand.
Romans 15:21

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
1 Colossians 1:17

So when we talk about the Gospel of Christ we mean the Evangel or the four Gospels that had been firmly established as Christian canon for several hundred years before Muhammad emerged from the Arabian Peninsula. There was simply no other Gospel around at that stage to which Muhammad makes reference.

Hi Adrian,

Help me out here...I'm an old man:

Are you suggesting that when the Qur'an uses the word Injil it is referring to the four Gospels of the New Testament?

 

[Limo]

You’re making it complicated, whereas its simple.

The Arabic word Injil (إنجيل) as found in Islamic texts, and now used also by Muslim non-Arabs and Arab non-Muslims, is derived from the Syriac Aramaicword awongaleeyoon (ܐܘܢܓܠܝܘܢ) found in the Pe****ta(Syriac translation of the Bible), which in turn derives from the Greek word euangelion(Εὐαγγέλιον) of the originally Greek language New Testament, where it means "good news" (from Greek "Εὐ αγγέλιον"; Old English "gōdspel"; Modern English "gospel", or "evangel" as an archaism, cf. e.g. Spanish "evangelio") The word Injil occurs twelve times in the Quran.

Gospel in Islam - Wikipedia

Similarly the word Gospel is used as a singular Gospel throughout the New Testament.

And Jesus went about all the cities and villages, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospelof the kingdom, and healing every sickness and every disease among the people.
Matthew 9:35

And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
Matthew 24:14

But as it is written, To whom he was not spoken of, they shall see: and they that have not heard shall understand.
Romans 15:21

For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect.
1 Colossians 1:17

So when we talk about the Gospel of Christ we mean the Evangel or the four Gospels that had been firmly established as Christian canon for several hundred years before Muhammad emerged from the Arabian Peninsula. There was simply no other Gospel around at that stage to which Muhammad makes reference.

Although the 4 Gospels were existing while prophet Mohamed alive but ....

1. There were also other books circulating among Christians
2. There were also non denomination Christians and Christianities especially uniterianb who have their own books
3. Even these 4 Gospels were not same as existing today

So, noway to say what is meant in Quran as injeel is exactly the 4 books existing today.
These 4 books have some of Almasseh Injeel but not is Almasseh Injeel.
Till date there are about 27 non canonical Gospels discovered. Non canonical doesn't mean they're facked but because denomination Christianities didn't accept them.

Also, we don't have genuine Aramaic or Syriac Gospel which most property used by Arab Christians which properly existed in Arabic peninsula during prophet Mohamed life

 

[Dawnofhope]

Hi Adrian,

Help me out here...I'm an old man:

Are you suggesting that when the Qur'an uses the word Injil it is referring to the four Gospels of the New Testament?

.... but so young at heart!

What is the Injil Muhammad refers to in the Holy Quran. It is most likely the same or similar Gospel/Evangel the Syrian Christians in the 7th century referred to as the Gospel (Injil).