Sodom and Gomorrah's supposed reason for being destroyed was that homosexuality was rampant. Also the word Sodom means the actual act of homosexual sex... I.E. someone was sodomized.
Actually it doesn't say their sin was homosexuality.
Eze 16:49 Behold,
this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy.
Eze 16:50 And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw
good.
The name of the city wasn't Sodom. It was
sed-ome' from a root meaning to
scorch;
burnt, a volcanic or bituminous district. This tells us why the area is associated with fire and brimstone.
And Sodom-Sodomy is a later addition.
Ezekiel 16 says Jerusalem committed the same, and worse, crimes then Sodom, - SO, - if you believe the "Bible" Sodom story, - why wasn't Jerusalem destroyed like Sodom was supposedly destroyed?
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