Door #3 is the winner. But with a twist: "that Socrates used logic." It generalizes, speaking to the case of all men, not their capability or capacity. But most importantly, it can be claimed even by someone with no knowledge of Socrates at all.
Here's your colour TV. . . . *hands it over*
Yay
*watches TV* AWW MAN I HAVE TO TUNE THIS THING!?
Seriously though... Your arguement doesn't show that all men are able to use logic. It is the truth and we can show it to be the truth (If you want to go and about over 3 billion men... That's a different story). Even without literally finding out that every man could use logic, it is not the case that it is logically implausible that men use logic (No sexist jokes allowed), but it is also not the case that all men ARE able to use logic.
I still don't understand what you're trying to say... It could be very much like saying:
Socrates was Greek
Socrates had discussions with Plato
Therefore all Greeks had discussions with Plato.
We can conclude that the third line of the argument is not implied by the previous two lines of the argument (Unless you think that conflation is a suitable technique to construct a valid argument).
GhK.