Fallen Prophet
Well-Known Member
Again - this is hilarious coming from you.FP, you are so full of your own words that any quotes from the gospels are well hidden within.
This should be good.Sacrificial Laws? One source of many actions and words?
Are you serious?Matthew {9:13} But go ye and learn what [that] meaneth, I will have mercy, and not sacrifice: for I am not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.
This was the Lord Jesus Christ quoting from the prophet Hosea to rebuke the Pharisees,
"For I desired mercy, and not sacrifice; and the knowledge of God more than burnt offerings." (Hosea 6:6)
The Lord Jesus Christ was pointing out to the Pharisees that even though God wants His people to observe outward ordinances of sacrifice - the external compliance with the duties of religion - He was more pleased with acts of benevolence and kindness.
God wants the observance of the Law to change His people - to help them learn to show mercy - which in this case meant benevolence or kindness to others.
The Lord Jesus Christ was reminding the Pharisees that it was supposed to be their job to call sinners to repentance - to be merciful to them - but they weren't - all they did was observe the outward ordinances of the Law.
Which is why He later criticized them thusly,
"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye make clean the outside of the cup and of the platter, but within they are full of extrotion and excess.
Thou blind Pharisee, cleanse first that which is within the cup and platter, that the outside of them may be clean also.
Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye are like unto whited sepulchres, which indeed appear beautiful outward, but are within full of dead men’s bones, and of all uncleanness.
Even so ye also outwardly appear righteous unto men, but within ye are full of hypocrisy and iniquity." (Matthew 23:25-28)
The Pharisees weren't learning the appropriate lessons from observing the Law. They weren't allowing the Law to change them. Make them better.
So - no - the Lord Jesus Christ was not claiming that the Jews should stop performing sacrifices - He was telling the Pharisees that God wanted them to observe the outward ordinances so that they would change them internally - make them more benevolent and kind to others - which is one of the ultimate goals of them having the Law and making sacrifice in the first place.
And just for your edification - the Lord Jesus Christ quoted this same scripture from Hosea again in Matthew 12:7 when the Pharisees criticized Him and His disciples for picking and eating corn on the Sabbath.
In that instance the Lord Jesus Christ was not condemning the practice of observing the Sabbath day - but pointing out the ignorance of the Pharisees and their hypocrisy in valuing their own Man-made rules concerning the Sabbath than what God would have them value.
Hah! I knew you would try to use this one - because you are ignorant.Jesus turning away from adultery? Although Jesus spoke out against adultery he certainly redacted any punishments against it, FP
John {8:3} And the scribes and Pharisees brought unto him a woman taken in adultery; and when they had set her in the midst, {8:4} They say unto him, Master, this woman was taken in adultery, in the very act. {8:5} Now Moses in the law commanded us, that such should be stoned: but what
sayest thou? {8:6} This they said, tempting him, that they might have to accuse him. But Jesus stooped down, and with [his] finger wrote on the ground, [as though he heard them not. ]{8:7} So when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin
among you, let him first cast a stone at her. {8:8} And again he stooped down, and wrote on the ground. {8:9} And they which heard [it,] being convicted by [their own] conscience, went out one by one, beginning at the eldest, [even] unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman standing in the midst.
During this time Judah was under Roman occupation - the Jewish elders could try criminal cases - but they could not carry out a death penalty without Roman approval.
This is why the Lord Jesus Christ was brought before Pilate - because the Jewish elders wanted Him executed and they needed his approval to do so.
So - these scribes and Pharisees were trying to trap the Lord Jesus Christ when they brought the woman to Him. It was all a farce.
They wanted Him to either, 1.) Condemn her to stoning - which they could use to accuse Him of breaking Roman law or 2.) Absolve her - which they could use to accuse Him of not observing the Law of Moses.
This - of course - was very hypocritical of them - since they themselves could not kill the woman without Roman approval - yet they were asking the Lord Jesus Christ to make that judgment without Roman approval.
Also - where was the man who committed adultery with her? Wouldn't he need to be stoned as well? (Leviticus 20:10; Deuteronomy 22:22) Where were the witnesses of the act needed to accuse them and who were required to cast the first stones? (Deuteronomy 17:5-7)
These scribes and Pharisees were not being compliant with the trial, conviction and sentencing required by the Law of Moses. Hypocrites all.
The Lord Jesus Christ masterfully confounded these scribes and Pharisees without breaking either the Roman law or the Law of Moses.
He knew that these scribes and Pharisees had not satisfied the requirements to accuse this woman or demand her execution under either the Law of Moses or Roman law - so He could not lawfully condemn or absolve her either.
Which is why after the crowds dispersed He told her that He did not condemn her - because He legally could not under both the Law of Moses and Roman law - yet He was firm in the fact that adultery was still sinful when He told her that she should sin no more. (John 8:11)
Those were both pathetic attempts to prove that the Lord Jesus Christ "redacted" these Laws - but I appreciate that you provided your sources.
No - not "in my mind" - they are literally syonyms of each other.In your mind, FP.
Inebriated | Definition of Inebriated by Merriam-Webster
If you click the link you will notice that in the list of synonyms both the words "drunk" and "drunken" appear.
I never once claimed that inebriated meant "drunkard".But most folks use the word 'inebriated' in your first two examples, above, and not drunkard.
The only time I used the word "drunkard" was when I was defining the term "wine-bibber" or referencing when you used it.
I never once claimed that inebriated meant "drunkard".
You are either confusing me with someone else or you did not read my posts.You've tried to marry the two terms together from the beginning, FP.