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Do you believe in the mystical?

Do you believe in the mystical?


  • Total voters
    31

lovemuffin

τὸν ἄρτον τοῦ ἔρωτος
But you wouldn't deny that belief itself can be (and in fact must be) experienced ... that the act of believing must be experienced to be meaningful?


Sure. I'm not sure where we're going with this though. It seems like there might be a misunderstanding about the reason for drawing the original distinction between experience and belief. The distinction is for two reasons:

The first is just to emphasize that the mystical is not abstract and theoretical. It's something to be experienced and not just talked about abstractly. There is a necessary relation between experience and belief. We form beliefs about our experiences, but that doesn't mean the two are the same.

The second is that it is intended to emphasize that beliefs about mystical experiences are provisional and conditioned in all sorts of ways (by memory, prior beliefs, culture, religion, etc) while experiences themselves are unmediated in a way similar to the experience of the senses. It is "ecstatic" in a way. To those who believe that some experience they've had is mystical, especially in the sense of being some kind of touch with reality in an "ultimate" way, the point in making the distinction is to acknowledge that experience is indeed unmediated and ultimate, but to point out that the interpretations and beliefs we form about it are not. The beliefs are not absolute.

So empty claims regarding allegedly spooky stuff will always be just claims, correct? Because the very minute that any of these claims were substantiated, they'd also cease to be mystical, no?

I should acknowledge that people use "mystical" in different ways, and I can't claim to offer the objectively correct definition, but in my view mystical experience doesn't have to involve anything "spooky". I don't really have in mind the paranormal or supernatural. More like "intuitions of the numinous", or the feeling you might have contemplating the sheer scope and size of the universe while looking up at the stars, or at a flower, or the depth of love you might feel for a particular person that seems to go beyond emotion or infatuation. To an extent, I think all of those experiences have explanations which substantiate them. You could talk about neurotransmitters and evolutionary biology or whatever, and I might accept those explanations as to why I have a certain experience in certain situations, but they would still, for me, involve a mystical element that does not reduce to those explanations.

There are also plenty of people who're ready to offer equally sincere (and equally unsubstantiated) testimony that they've been abducted by aliens or that they've been reincarnated. So what?

For me, the "so what" is that a certain kind of experience leads to convictions and a way of life which I find much more fulfilling than a life without it.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
Your belief that everything has a naturalistic explanation is based on faith.
Naturalism is the position that scientific laws are adequate to explain all phenomena.

Science is nothing more than the rigorous application of logical inference to evidence.

Therefore, a non-naturalistic explanation for a phenomenon would be irrational in some way (e.g. not be rigorous, not be logical, or not be derived from evidence)... and therefore not be an explanation at all.
 

lovemuffin

τὸν ἄρτον τοῦ ἔρωτος
Naturalism is the position that scientific laws are adequate to explain all phenomena.

I wouldn't have used the word faith because it has connotations that don't fit, but gambit's point, which is correct, is that this conclusion is not itself proven in a strict logical sense. It is reached abductively, based on the apparent success of empirical science and heuristic principles like occam's razor. Which is not to say that naturalism isn't reasonable, it is probably the most strictly rational position, but its correctness is not a matter of logical necessity

What I would suggest is that rather than "irrational", you should say "arational". The very word mystery implies that which is without explanation. If naturalism is true, than "arational" is meaningless and what is not rational must be irrational. But from the standpoint of the mystics that is begging the question.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
I wouldn't have used the word faith because it has connotations that don't fit, but gambit's point, which is correct, is that this conclusion is not itself proven in a strict logical sense. It is reached abductively, based on the apparent success of empirical science and heuristic principles like occam's razor. Which is not to say that naturalism isn't reasonable, it is probably the most strictly rational position, but its correctness is not a matter of logical necessity
It is not necessarily correct (and I suspect most likely incorrect) that every phenomenon has a naturalistic explanation. It is necessarily correct that every valid explanation for a phenomenon is naturalistic.

What I would suggest is that rather than "irrational", you should say "arational". The very word mystery implies that which is without explanation. If naturalism is true, than "arational" is meaningless and what is not rational must be irrational. But from the standpoint of the mystics that is begging the question.
No, I'm going to stick to irrational. When someone tries to explain the unexplainable, there's necessarily a fault of logic in there somewhere.
 

Gambit

Well-Known Member
Naturalism is the position that scientific laws are adequate to explain all phenomena.

Okay.

Science is nothing more than the rigorous application of logical inference to evidence.

Therefore, a non-naturalistic explanation for a phenomenon would be irrational in some way (e.g. not be rigorous, not be logical, or not be derived from evidence)... and therefore not be an explanation at all.

There is no naturalistic explanation for a random event. But we have compelling evidence that such events do in fact occur.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
There is no naturalistic explanation for a random event. But we have compelling evidence that such events do in fact occur.
As I said to well named, I don't think that every phenomenon necessarily has a naturalistic explanation, but I do think that all the valid explanations to be had are naturalistic.

If something can't be explained naturalistically, then it can't be explained validly, since by definition any explanation that employs rigorous logical inference from evidence is naturalistic, and any "explanation" that doesn't employ these things is just made up.
 

NulliuSINverba

Active Member
It seems like there might be a misunderstanding about the reason for drawing the original distinction between experience and belief. The distinction is for two reasons:

The first is just to emphasize that the mystical is not abstract and theoretical.

Exactly what is it then?

It's something to be experienced and not just talked about abstractly.

Be sure to frame your response to the previous question in strictly concrete terms and do not resort to abstractions.

Thanks.

There is a necessary relation between experience and belief.

Darn tootin!

We form beliefs about our experiences, but that doesn't mean the two are the same.

Yet you've agreed that belief is itself an experience, correct?

The second is that it is intended to emphasize that beliefs about mystical experiences are provisional and conditioned in all sorts of ways (by memory, prior beliefs, culture, religion, etc) while experiences themselves are unmediated in a way similar to the experience of the senses.

Oh please. You're now insisting that there are three sorts of experiences?

1.) Mystical experiences.
2.) Experiences themselves.
3.) Experiences of the senses.

And if there is no distinction to be made between Experiences Themselves and Experiences Of The Senses ... why did you apparently just try to make one?

To those who believe that some experience they've had is mystical, especially in the sense of being some kind of touch with reality in an "ultimate" way, the point in making the distinction is to acknowledge that experience is indeed unmediated and ultimate, but to point out that the interpretations and beliefs we form about it are not. The beliefs are not absolute.

When you say "ultimate reality" aren't you really implying that there is a "hidden reality?" Why isn't reality ultimate enough? Because it fails to support claims of the fantastic?

I should acknowledge that people use "mystical" in different ways ...

Indeed. The word "spiritual" is similarly bereft of any meaning.

... and I can't claim to offer the objectively correct definition, but in my view mystical experience doesn't have to involve anything "spooky".

Perhaps an objectively correct definition is elusive because (in this case) ... there isn't one?

I don't really have in mind the paranormal or supernatural. More like "intuitions of the numinous" ...

Is that like a "God Hunch?"

... or the feeling you might have contemplating the sheer scope and size of the universe while looking up at the stars, or at a flower, or the depth of love you might feel for a particular person that seems to go beyond emotion or infatuation.

So basically anything, right?

To an extent, I think all of those experiences have explanations which substantiate them. You could talk about neurotransmitters and evolutionary biology or whatever, and I might accept those explanations as to why I have a certain experience in certain situations, but they would still, for me, involve a mystical element that does not reduce to those explanations.

The human ego just insists that its parking spot is more prestigious than it actually is.

For me, the "so what" is that a certain kind of experience leads to convictions and a way of life which I find much more fulfilling than a life without it.

I still fail to see why any appeal to "the mystical" is required, when a simple acknowledgment that the human experience is slippery and subjective is sufficient.
 

George-ananda

Advaita Vedanta, Theosophy, Spiritualism
Premium Member
The assertion that anything "mystical" exists is unsubstantiated.
Why should we expect physical substantiation of something not physical?

To me, the collective experiences of humans (mystical, paranormal, etc.)objectively analyzed is evidence (not proof) to be considered. I have personally concluded that non-physical realms exist beyond reasonable doubt. Nobody expects the mystical to be studied with the same rigorousness as physical experimentation.
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
Okay.



There is no naturalistic explanation for a random event. But we have compelling evidence that such events do in fact occur.

What makes you think that naturalism does not cover inherently random events? I think you are confusing naturalism with strict determinism (ala Laplace).

If the world is defined by a field in which the real things are mere probability waves, and that explains what we observe with an unsurpassed level of accuracy, that is good enough for me as an explanation. I guess you are aware that there is a theory called quantum field theory, and that it is fully naturalistic, right? Or do you think that quantum field theorists are mystics?

I actually think that there is not a thing that does not possess a random component, no matter how big or small, that contributed to its actualization.

Ciao

- viole
 
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9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
Why should we expect physical substantiation of something not physical?
If we experience or have memories of a thing, then the associated firing of our neurons is itself a physical substantiation. Anything that has no physical effects at all is something utterly unknown to us.

To me, the collective experiences of humans (mystical, paranormal, etc.)objectively analyzed is evidence (not proof) to be considered. I have personally concluded that non-physical realms exist beyond reasonable doubt.
Your next statement suggests that there is reasonable doubt, since you make excuses to address it:

Nobody expects the mystical to be studied with the same rigorousness as physical experimentation.
I think you're talking about the "just made up" school of explanation that I touched on earlier.
 

George-ananda

Advaita Vedanta, Theosophy, Spiritualism
Premium Member
If we experience or have memories of a thing, then the associated firing of our neurons is itself a physical substantiation. Anything that has no physical effects at all is something utterly unknown to us.
I agree with that. But people remember their mystical experiences. But the source of the experience can't be substantiated by physical observation or experimentation.


Your next statement suggests that there is reasonable doubt, since you make excuses to address it:
Enough evidence without rigorous proof can make one certain beyond reasonable doubt (notice I didn't say ALL doubt). I think OJ was guilty of murder beyond reasonable doubt (but not beyond ALL doubt because I lack proof).

I think you're talking about the "just made up" school of explanation that I touched on earlier.
I guess I wasn't following when you defined this 'school'.
 

lovemuffin

τὸν ἄρτον τοῦ ἔρωτος
Exactly what is it then?

I don't know. It may not be an "it", i.e a thing, an object, despite the implication of the language I'm using. Within my own tradition I tend to think of mystical experiences as experiences of the Divine. I am fond of Panikkar's cosmotheandric intuition if you are interested in understanding more of how I conceive of that. But the fairest answer is "I don't know".

Yet you've agreed that belief is itself an experience, correct?

Let's try to parse this carefully. I do not think that a belief is an experience. I think we have an experience of believing our beliefs, in the sense that our awareness is reflective. We believe, knowing that we believe. That "knowing" is an experience of belief, but the content of a given belief is not itself an experience. First there is experience, then there is memory, interpretation, belief. Coincidental with interpretation and belief is the experience of believing, a separate experience from the original one.

You're now insisting that there are three sorts of experiences?

1.) Mystical experiences.
2.) Experiences themselves.
3.) Experiences of the senses.

And if there is no distinction to be made between Experiences Themselves and Experiences Of The Senses ... why did you apparently just try to make one?

I have not been attempting to propose an exhaustive taxonomy, but I'll make a few comments. With regard to "mystical" experiences, it's a description, not an ontological category. More like if I broke down experiences as "happy", "sad", "fearful", or etc.

"Experience in itself" is not a category related to the others you list at all, but is a phrase that is intended to distinguish between experiencing, the actual happening, a verb form, and beliefs about experiences, which are distinct. "Experiences themselves" are not a type of experience, it's a way of referring to an experience prior to memory, interpretation, and belief.

In referring to the senses, I'm referring to traditional distinctions made between human faculties of understanding, which is also not a category of experience, but of faculty. For example you would distinguish between the senses and the rational intellect, presumably. Via your physical senses, you have experiences. Your reasoning mind interprets those experiences and also "knows" things based on logical inferences drawn from them. In this way, your rational intellect "knows" what it knows (by inference) and also what the senses "know" (the data of experience). The knowledge of the senses is not reflective, but the knowledge of the rational intellect is. This non-reflectivity is what I meant by "ecstatic". Through the intellect, you also "know" logical truths, a priori. Like mathematics. Note that even this conceptualization is not intended to be some absolutely objective description. It's just intended to draw useful distinctions, and these distinctions have long been used in philosophy.

So I was comparing mystical experience to sensual experience in general by saying that they are both ecstatic, i.e prior to interpretation, but in so saying not making them entirely separate categories, or part of some set. Sensual experience can be mystical, i.e in the example of looking at the stars.

When you say "ultimate reality" aren't you really implying that there is a "hidden reality?" Why isn't reality ultimate enough? Because it fails to support claims of the fantastic?

Yes, I am implying that reality is partly hidden from empirical and rational knowledge. The experience of the hidden is mystical experience. I am not particularly interested in this as a means to support claims of the supernatural. Now, as I said, I am a theist of a sort, and a Christian, so there are such elements in my worldview, but at least insofar as I've been talking about mysticism, I've been trying to do so in a very general way. There can be such a thing as a mystical experience even of a reality with no supreme being in the Abrahamic sense. Consider various forms of Buddhism.

Indeed. The word "spiritual" is similarly bereft of any meaning.

Many words are polysemic without being meaningless.

I still fail to see why any appeal to "the mystical" is required, when a simple acknowledgment that the human experience is slippery and subjective is sufficient.

An appeal isn't required. This gets back to the insistence all along that "the mystical" isn't a belief. The goal is not to assert a proposition and gain your assent through a process of reasoning. The goal is to point to the experience and suggest that it is possible and that the demonstration of its possibility is in the having of the experience. In many traditions, the proper method is a purification and initiation of one's own life and consciousness, and this is so precisely because the experience is subjective.
 

godnotgod

Thou art That
Unsubstantiated twaddle.

Do you require substantiation to know that you are here, now?

Unfortunately, that "deepity" is demonstrably untrue. Salinity levels in seawater vary. Sorry.

Any such 'deepity' is only in your mind, but you have missed the point, which is not about the level of salinity, but about the universality of salinity. Sorry.


Again, a demonstrably false assertion.

See: "Storm."

Example:

Q. - What is it that is raining?
A. - It is a storm that is raining.

See? Easy peasy.

Not so simplistic or demonstrable. Show me this 'it' that rains. Then show me the 'whirlpool' that whirls, the 'river' that flows, and the 'wave' that waves. No such animals. These are nothing more than figures of speech we have accustomed to, thinking them to be real things, which they're not; they're actions.

You're suggesting that experiences can occur without anyone to experience them? Isn't that akin to claiming that reading can take place without a reader?

What/where is 'reader' or 'experiencer'? Descartes was wrong. There is no such 'I' that thinks. There is only thinking itself:


The Danish philosopher Søren Kierkegaard provided a critical response to the cogito. Kierkegaard argues that the cogito already presupposes the existence of "I", and therefore concluding with existence is logically trivial. Kierkegaard's argument can be made clearer if one extracts the premise "I think" into two further premises:


"x" thinks
I am that "x"
Therefore I think
Therefore I am


Where "x" is used as a placeholder in order to disambiguate the "I" from the thinking thing.


Here, the cogito has already assumed the "I"'s existence as that which thinks. For Kierkegaard, Descartes is merely "developing the content of a concept", namely that the "I", which already exists, thinks.


Kierkegaard argues that the value of the cogito is not its logical argument, but its psychological appeal: a thought must have something that exists to think the thought. It is psychologically difficult to think "I do not exist". But as Kierkegaard argues, the proper logical flow of argument is that existence is already assumed or presupposed in order for thinking to occur, not that existence is concluded from that thinking.

Cogito ergo sum - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
 
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9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
I agree with that. But people remember their mystical experiences. But the source of the experience can't be substantiated by physical observation or experimentation.
Sure it can. The physical observations and experiments just don't give the answer you want.

Enough evidence without rigorous proof can make one certain beyond reasonable doubt (notice I didn't say ALL doubt). I think OJ was guilty of murder beyond reasonable doubt (but not beyond ALL doubt because I lack proof).
Without rigour, we can "prove" that pigs fly.

I can supply you with as many data points as you like showing a pig not in contact with the ground; it's rigour that asks the question of what happens before and after that data point.

Without rigour, we can't be sure of our conclusions.
 

godnotgod

Thou art That
Sure, but we can not distinguish between the unknown and the unknowable, but I do understand your argument. Thanks.

The unknown is assumed to be ultimately knowable, and at some future point, known, via the rational mind. The unknowable, OTOH, cannot be known by any means, as it is incomprehensible by the rational mind to begin with.
 

godnotgod

Thou art That
No, but the experience of belief is not the experience of that experience which is prior to the belief about it.

As Maharishi used to say: 'the description is not the described'


Yes and no, in my opinion. Yes in that it's not rationally or empirically (scientifically) demonstrated. It wouldn't exactly be the experience of the ineffable and unknowable in that case. No in that there is widespread testimony as to the fact that people have experiences which they describe in "mystical" terms, and that fact shouldn't be entirely ignored, even if it doesn't demonstrate an objective and rationally justifiable "existence" to which those experiences point.

The conclusions reached by those who've had such experiences independently of one another has shown itself to be consistent over thousands of years, all around the globe.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
As Maharishi used to say: 'the description is not the described'




The conclusions reached by those who've had such experiences independently of one another has shown itself to be consistent over thousands of years, all around the globe.
Have they? Which conclusions are you referring to specifically?

Are the experiences you describe those that have been induced artificially in the lab (e.g. the "God Helmet" experiments)?
 
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