If the the fact that the UN partitioned the area as an Arab state does not make it a legitimate claim for the paestinians then you could claim the same for the jews and the state of Israel.
I don't believe the UN is authoritative on this matter whatsoever, that's kind of my point, they were just the mediators. If anything, I put far more credence in the Balfour Declaration which was more of a binding internal British empire ruling that was only broken because of Arab pressure. We don't need the UN to justify our claims for us.
I don't really know anything about the Balfour declaration, so I can't really answer your question, sorry.
The British promised all of Mandatory Palestine, including Trans-Jordan, to the Jews initially.
Sorry, you lost me there. How is this reply an answer to my question on how you can take back something you haven't lost?
What do you mean haven't lost? The Jews had an autonomous kingdom until 70 A.D., even under Roman rule they were mostly independent and in power, and from there succeeding Byzantine, Persian, Arab, Crusader, Mamluk, Turkish, and British empires occupied the land. It was "lost" at 70 A.D when the Jewish kingdom was overthrown by the Romans. What makes it any different than 1948? The land was called JUDEA SAMARIA historically, always had a large Jewish population (with an arguably Jewish majority in Jerusalem for many of those years), it doesn't matter what one empire or another said. If anything, going by the territorial colonial rulers, both the Ottomans AND the British, even the French under Napoleon for a brief period, had sympathies with the Jewish political side. So there's no reason to say that the Jews ever ceded their claim to JUDEA SAMARIA, it was just managed by different empires. The Palestinians however NEVER had a claim to it, never had autonomous rulership until 1946 when Jordan (which was an Emirate of Mandatory Palestine) was independent. I don't see why Arab claims for 600 A.D. are any more valid than Jewish claims from 1000 B.C.
And I don't understand what it is I am supposed to explain. Did I get the timeline worng or something? I was just quoting wikipedia which says
Why did Jordan take over the "West Bank" if it's supposed to be a Palestinian state for almost 20 years, and why didn't the Palestinians complain? Research it first before answering.
In 1948 Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria attacked Israel.
In 1950 Jordan annexed the West Bank.
In 1967 Israel occupied the West Bank but did not annex it.
In 1988 Jordan ceded its claims to the West Bank.
See how it says "Jordan annexed the West Bank"? That's what you're supposed to explain.
So are you talking about the event of 1950 when Jordan annexed the West Bank?
Yes, as well as their occupation before annexing 2 years earlier. If it's supposed to be "Palestine", why did Jordan take it over and why didn't the Arabs clamor for a Palestinian state during that time?
Are you asking me to explain why?
I don't know why, ask the Jordanians
Do you subscribe to the idea that perhaps you might want to read the basic history of an event before you get too involved in a debate about it? Just saying. You may want to know what you're talking about before making claims or defending one side of the story.
So are you saying that because the Jordanians invaded the people living on the West Bank lost their claim to the land they were living on?
How is that fair?
No that's not at all what I'm saying. I'm saying that Jordan's occupation of the "West Bank" (Judea Samaria) and the fact that the Palestinians didn't demand a state during that time proves that their claims are all lies and fabrications, they don't really want a Palestinian state, they just want Arab domination and to drive out the Jews. It had nothing to do with the historical claims and who interprets them. But it can prove that their historical claims are a joke and a cover for their agenda of "Driving the Jews to the Sea". Do you understand that NO ONE COMPLAINED WHEN JORDAN TOOK OVER? Do you not see how that applies? The point is proven that they never really had a "Palestinian identity" until 1963 or so, until then they were all just "Southern Syrian Arabs", in a desparate land battle against the Jews. The Palestinians did not consider the Jordanian occupation an "invasion", they never even considered themselves a sufficiently distinct people for the most part until over a decade after that fact. The word "Palestinian" was never used until the 60s.
In other words, it's not so much they lost their claim, it proves they NEVER HAD A CLAIM. The only claim they claimed was for "Arabs to occupy the land and drive the Jews into the sea", not "For a Palestinian state", and this claim had NO basis, weight, authenticity, or justification to begin with, the Jordanian occupation accentuated this fact and proved this.
As to how that applies to Palestinian claims for the land, again, it proves that they never really wanted a Palestinian state as much as they wanted Arab occupation of Jewish territory. Why do you suppose they rejected the 1948 partition in the first place?
Now again, I recommend you read the history before you reply. Just a quick 2 minute browse should be sufficient to understand where this is coming from.