Scuba Pete
Le plongeur avec attitude...
Does it matter when they lived? Not with God.
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If one goes for Option One, then the answer to the question is: To get a translation that is clearer than those that have been accomplished thus far, which seem to be colored in their own peculiar ways, by those who seemed to translate the scriptures to fulfill their own agenda's.No*s said:T3gah,
It does more than that. The issue falls into one of three criteria.
1). It is irrelevant. The fact that we don't have an infallible Scripture today means that God didn't consider it important enough to preserve such an infallibility, so why look for it in the original?
2). It is important, but we don't have infallible Scriptures today. In this case God inspired them, but why didn't He preserve them? That question asks a lot, and lurking behind it, "Could He preserve it?" This is a quandry for infallibists.
3). It is important, and God did preserve it. In this case, how do we know which of all the discordant manuscripts perserves God's word? I think this is unsupportable.
IMO, you either call God into question or go with option 1. It becomes a question that says a lot about how you view God.
I'm sorry, but could you tell me what a lower case Paleo-Hebrew "n" looks like?t3gah said:The word Nephilim is Hebrew and the original scriptures used a lower case "n".
Could you also suggest any Hebrew scholarship unassociated with your sect that translates Nephilim as anything other than something akin to "the fallen ones"?t3gah said:The definition of Nephilim is fellers (causing people to fall down).
I made an error typing my post out. I edited it but took longer to do so than I thought. You are quoting something about a post that no longer exists. The correct word is hanNephilim which I have since corrected for.Deut. 32.8 said:I'm sorry, but could you tell me what a lower case Paleo-Hebrew "n" looks like?
Could you also suggest any Hebrew scholarship unassociated with your sect that translates Nephilim as anything other than something akin to "the fallen ones"?
Finally, what is your point? Anyone who speaks of "the original scriptures" is simply demonstrating textual ignorance. Repeating such a demonstration is getting a bit tiresome.
I'm not a Jehovah's Witness anymore, not due to disfellowshipping, due to my choice to leave and they, Jehovah's Witnesses, don't believe that they are a sect. You can call them that if you like.Deut. 32.8 said:Your avoidance of the second question speaks volumes. Again: Could you also suggest any Hebrew scholarship unassociated with your sect that translates Nephilim as anything other than something akin to "the fallen ones"? I have 5 different Torahs on my shelf, and others accessible on line. Every one of them agree. By what quirk of astounding arrogance do you stand there and submit your fringe version as authoritative without a shread of evidence?
I could care less. The term is not inherently perjorative.t3gah said:... and they, Jehovah's Witnesses, don't believe that they are a sect.
OKt3gah said:Please stop calling it "your sect". I'm not one of them anymore.
Rather than incessant rhetorical questions, why not tell us which translation of which vorlage you support and why.t3gah said:The NWT that I am analyzing is an english version.