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Errors in Bible translations...

Do you believe that a new more accurate Bible should be translated?

  • Yes

    Votes: 33 47.1%
  • No

    Votes: 11 15.7%
  • I'm not sure

    Votes: 6 8.6%
  • Who cares?!

    Votes: 16 22.9%
  • I don't have any bibles

    Votes: 4 5.7%

  • Total voters
    70

iris89

Active Member
Hi Deut. 32.8

It was a synthization and not a substantial copy; hence, by definition not a plagirism.


Now, why are you so negative instead of being loving which is required of Christ true followers?

Remember, "When the Most High gave to the nations their inheritance, When he separated the children of men, He set the bounds of the peoples According to the number of the children of Israel."

Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
iris89 said:
Remember, "When the Most High gave to the nations their inheritance, When he separated the children of men, He set the bounds of the peoples According to the number of the children of Israel."
Bad redaction. You should know better.

When was Genesis written, iris89? When was the Exodus/Conquest?
 

SoulTYPE

Well-Known Member
The biggest misunderstanding among Bible scholars today, is that Moses wrote the book of Genesis. If we look at the entire Bible, you will notice that all of it has been written by eyewitness accounts. Many assume that the book of Genesis was made up of oral traditions.

The reference to writing is found in Genesis 5:1 which says: "This is the book of the generations of Adam." This suggests that the that art of writing was known within the lifetime of Adam, which could make writing as old as the human race.

God told Isaiah to "Take thee a great roll, and write..."(8:1). "Now go, write it before them in a table, and note it in a book, that it may be for the time to come for ever and ever:" (30:8). He told Jeremiah also to "Write thee all the words that I have spoken unto thee in a book" (30:2). The Bible is written by about what God DIRECTLY TOLD THEM AND WHAT THEY SAW.

Adam wrote the book of Genesis IMO. Others can choose there own opinion or belief.

I'll be quiet now. Just participating and all, lol.
 

iris89

Active Member
Hi Everyone

FIRST, Moses wrote the book of Genesis; however, he referenced or pulled information from earlier writings as one poster suggested. That in no way changes who wrote Genesis anymore that when historians such as Will Durant, Reverend Alexander Hisop, or John Foxe pulled or synthised what had been written in earlier workes. In doing so, Moses was not unique among Bible writers Joshua and others did like wise, here are two examples where credit is actually given right in the Bible to another book the writer used as reference:

Joshua 10:13: And the sun stood still, and the moon stayed, Until the nation had avenged themselves of their enemies. Is not this written in the book of Jashar? And the sun stayed in the midst of heaven, and hasted not to go down about a whole day. (American Standard Version; ASV).

2 Samuel 1:18: (and he bade them teach the children of Judah [the song of] the bow: behold, it is written in the book of Jashar): (ASV).

Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

SoulTYPE

Well-Known Member
iris89 said:
Hi Everyone

FIRST, Moses wrote the book of Genesis; however, he referenced or pulled information from earlier writings as one poster suggested. That in no way changes who wrote Genesis anymore that when historians such as Will Durant, Reverend Alexander Hisop, or John Foxe pulled or synthised what had been written in earlier workes.
How could Moses write the book, if he "pulled" things from other writings? Are not the person/s who originally made these writings responsible? Without them, Moses could not really write much of a book, could he?

Iris, I am not having a go at you, I just want more output from your posts. BTW, my name is SOULTYPE01
 

iris89

Active Member
Hi SoulTYPE01

Obviously you do NOT read many history books as their authors all 'pull' things/data from elsewhere. Now go look at some of the books by Will Durant, Reverend Alexander Hilsop, or John Foxe. No history book can really be written without pulling information from other sources and the same is true for encyclopedias, dictionaries, and most text books. This data is either directly copied in part with credit given to the original writer as Moses did in the case of data from Adam or it is synthesised as I did in coming up with a list of the principle writers of the Bible. Now what is synthesised, it is getting a fact from here and there and combining all the disparate facts in an ordered work. In the case of building an ordered list of who wrote, principle writers, of the Bible, I went to a Bible dictionary and did research on every book of the old testament and made note of who wrote each and where he wrote it if known for every book of the old testament and then went to yet another source to come up with estimated dates for the writing of each, this is a synthesized work and not a copy or basically a copy. Usually in synthesized works credit is not given to the many sources from which facts are drawn; whereas, copied and/or substantially copied items it is standard operating practice to give credit to the original source since they are NOT substantially transformed. Failure to do so would be considered as taking credit for what you did not write in the case of a copy and/or substantial copy, this would be plagiarism.

Now let’s look at a plagiarism by Muhammed so you can understand exactly what plagiarism really is by example and my comment on it:

LUKE 1:35 VS. SURA 3:47:

Let’s first look at what the Quran (Koran) says at Sura 3:47:

Sura 3:47, “She said, "My Lord, how can I have a son, when no man has touched me?" He said, "GOD thus creates whatever He wills. To have anything done, He simply says to it, `Be,' and it is.”

And, Sura 3:48 says, “"He will teach him the scripture, wisdom, the Torah, and the Gospel." Interestingly here the Quran (Koran) actually speaks of the first five (5) books of the Bible, the Torah; yet today many Muslims rail against the Bible from which their book the Quran (Koran) was plagiarized from.

Now the Bible says at Luke 1:35, “And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Spirit shall come upon thee, and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee: wherefore also the holy thing which is begotten shall be called the Son of God.” (American Standard Version; ASV).

Interestingly although both the Quran’s (Koran’s) ‘Be’ and the Bible’s (in some translations only) overshadow both refer to exactly the same thing, but use different words, some Muslims do not comprehend this and think overshadow has bad connotations. Both these passages refer to God’s (YHWH) using his active force or power referred to in the Bible as Spirit or Holy Spirit to implant the life force of his only begotten Son, that we know as Jesus (Yeshua) into the womb of the virgin Mary as recorded in Matthew 1:18-25, “Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found with child of the Holy Spirit. 19 And Joseph her husband, being a righteous man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily. 20 But when he thought on these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son; and thou shalt call his name JESUS; for it is he that shall save his people from their sins. 22 Now all this is come to pass, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, 23 Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, And they shall call his name Immanuel; which is, being interpreted, God with us. 24 And Joseph arose from his sleep, and did as the angel of the Lord commanded him, and took unto him his wife; 25 and knew her not till she had brought forth a son: and he called his name JESUS.” (ASV). Now some may not understand just what this force or power of God (YHWH) is so here is a brief explanation.

A brief consideration on and reasoning on Acts 10:19-20; Acts 16:6; Acts 13:2-4; Acts 15:28; Romans 8:14; Romans 8:26; Ephesians 4:30; and 1 Corinthians 2:10-12 will show that the Spirit or Holy Spirit is God's (YHWH's) active force or power and emanates from him and is a force completely controlled by him, and is capable of giving him feedback and gathering for him information.

But first let's see why the Spirit is indeed God's (YHWH's) active force or power from an understanding of the ancient word 'pneu'ma' translated Spirit or Holy Spirit in English. The neuter Koine Greek word for spirit (pneu'ma) is used with the neuter pronoun "it" since it is lacks gender. This fact is conveniently over looked or hidden by most Trinitarian translators of the Bible as admitted in the "New American Bible Catholic Bible," regarding John 14:17: "The Greek word for 'Spirit' is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English ('he,' 'his,' 'him'), most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ 'it.'" So when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with pa·ra'kle·tos at John 16:7, 8, it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine. And in Ancient Hebrew the word here rendered Holy Ghost, Holy Spirit, or Spirit which is translated from 'ru'ach' meaning "breath; wind; spirit." In Latin, it is spiritus, and in Sanskrit, 'prana' which means both "breath" and "spirit." And the pertinent definition in the Funk & Wagnalls Standard College Dictionary (ISBN 0-308-10309-2 and 0-308-10310-6) clearly states, (4) <Often Cap.> In the Bible, the creative, animating power or divine influence of God...[etymology-[<Old French, 'espirit' <Latin, 'spiritus' bredth, spirit <'spirare' to breathe]. So we can see it, the Holy Spirit or Spirit is truly God's (YHWH's) active force or power and not a spirit being as are Almighty God (YHWH) and his Son, Jesus (Yeshua). This point is very well made in the New International Version at Luke 1:35, "The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called[1] the Son of God." (The New International Version; NIV). Sure shows that the Holy Spirit is nothing but God's (YHWH's) active force.

Now from the study of science and technology we know that with respect a force there can be four possibilities or possibly five applicable questions, which are as follows:

(1) Is it an uncontrolled force?

(2) Is it a controlled force?

(3) Is it controlled, but without feedback?

(4) Is it controlled, but with feedback?

Is it direct or indirect feedback?

However 1 Corinthians 2:10-12 shows it to be a controlled force with feedback that appears to be direct feedback, "But unto us God revealed [them] through the Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God. 11 For who among men knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of the man, which is in him? even so the things of God none knoweth, save the Spirit of God. 12 But we received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is from God; that we might know the things that were freely given to us of God." (ASV), clearly showing that the "spirit which is from God," and God "revealed [them] through the Spirit," and uses it to search all things, thus showing it is a controlled spirit capable of feedback. God (YHWH) has complete control over his power or force and can choose its fields of operations as testified to at Romans 8:14, "For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God." (ASV) clearly showing he can use to lead individuals and that it belongs to him. And John 16:13 clearly shows it as a force, "Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he shall guide you into all the truth: for he shall not speak from himself; but what things soever he shall hear, these shall he speak: and he shall declare unto you the things that are to come." Since it is quite clear that it is a controlled force, "shall not speak from himself; but what things soever he shall hear, these shall he speak,"

Clearly it is a controlled force used by God (YHWH) to do many things as testified to at Acts 10:19-20, "While Peter was meditationg on the vision, the Spirit said to him, 'There are two men looking for you. 20 Get up and go down, and without hesitation go on with them, for I have sent them.'" (The New Testament by Charles B. Williams); And the fact that it is a closely controlled force is further affirmed at Acts 16:6, "And the Spirit bade me go with them, making no distinction. And these six brethren also accompanied me; and we entered into the man's house:" (ASV); And at Acts 13:2-4, "And as they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Spirit said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them. 3 Then, when they had fasted and prayed and laid their hands on them, they sent them away. 4 So they, being sent forth by the Holy Spirit, went down to Seleucia; and from thence they sailed to Cyprus." (ASV); And at Acts 15:28, "For it seemed good to the Holy Spirit, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things:" (ASV) .


Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

SoulTYPE

Well-Known Member
iris89 said:
Hi SoulTYPE01

Now let’s look at a plagiarism by Muhammed so you can understand exactly what plagiarism really is by example and my comment on it:

Your Friend in Christ Iris89
I know perfectly well what plagiarism is miss. I do publish books on occasion (not just those RF stories) but real books.

But thankyou for your input on this. It wasn't so hard was it? All you had to do was post your opinion :)
 

iris89

Active Member
Hi Hi SoulTYPE01

Then if you are a writer of books, you well realize I know what I am speaking about. However, you did not say what type of books. For example novels seldom pull facts from anywhere.


Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

SoulTYPE

Well-Known Member
I certainly do not write novels ;) but that is irrelevant to the thread title. :) I apologize for the disagreement.
 

iris89

Active Member
Hi SoulTYPE01

Sorry, I sometimes just say another poster as it is quicker than posting a name. No offense implied.


Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

t3gah

Well-Known Member
New World Translation

Cross-reference Error
The cross-references of Isaiah 65:11 listed below have cross-references (a) and (b) as I have listed them here. Strangely enough there's a cross-reference from (b) to Exodus 20:3 for the segment that says "Destiny" but no cross-reference for the segment that says "Good Luck" to Exodus 20:3. Then Genesis 30:11 is referenced as proof of reason for both cross-references (a) and (b). There is no corresponding cross-reference from Genesis 30:11 to Isaiah 65:11. There's also a footnote that states "Good Luck" in the NWT is equivalent to "the demons" in the LXX.


Isaiah 65:11
god of Good Luck(a) [or "s" in the medium NWT bible]
god of Destiny(b) [or "t" in the medium NWT bible]
See Genesis 30:11(c)

(a) 1 Corinthians 10:20
(a) Deuteronomy 32:17
(b) Exodus 20:3
(c) Genesis 30:11

This is what it would look like using the World English Bible

Isaiah 65:11 “But you who forsake Yahweh, who forget my holy mountain, who prepare a table for Fortune(a), and who fill up mixed wine to Destiny(b);

(a) 1 Corinthians 10:20 But I say that the things which the Gentiles sacrifice, they sacrifice to demons, and not to God, and I don’t desire that you would have fellowship with demons.

(a) Deuteronomy 32:17 They sacrificed to demons, which were no God, to gods that they didn’t know, to new gods that came up of late, which your fathers didn’t dread.

(b) Exodus 20:3 “You shall have no other gods before me.

(c) Genesis 30:11 Leah said, “How fortunate!” She named him Gad.
 

t3gah

Well-Known Member
Jewish Publication Society 1917 & 1985 Tanach (Tanakh)

The error is with regard to the scrolls having the tetragrammaton in the places both published versions of the JPS tanach's have and that phrase is: The LORD, except in the cases below:

In Exodus we have the following for the 1917 version:

3:14 And God said unto Moses: 'I AM THAT I AM'; and He said: 'Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: I AM hath sent me unto you.'

3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses: 'Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: The LORD, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you; this is My name for ever, and this is My memorial unto all generations.
In Exodus we have the following for the 1985 version:

3:14 has "Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh" where the 1917 has "I AM THAT I AM".

3:15 has "Ehyeh" where the 1917 has "The LORD".
 

sakura13

New Member
Meat in New Testament is incorrectly translated.
In Original Bible in Greek langauge, meat means, 'food', 'eating' 'nutrition' etc and doesn't mean animal flesh in most verses.
 

t3gah

Well-Known Member
sakura13 said:
Meat in New Testament is incorrectly translated.
In Original Bible in Greek langauge, meat means, 'food', 'eating' 'nutrition' etc and doesn't mean animal flesh in most verses.
What bible were you looking at?

What verses in that bible are wrong?

IF not one bible, are all bibles wrong?
 

iris89

Active Member
Hi Everyone

One poster said,
Meat in New Testament is incorrectly translated. In Original Bible in Greek langauge, meat means, 'food', 'eating' 'nutrition' etc and doesn't mean animal flesh in most verses.
Even if this were true, which I doubt, it would be a so what. However, the poster failed to post any evidence for what he said.

Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

anders

Well-Known Member
Iris, you should be very silent about asking for evidence, as long as you refuse even to try to proof your "40 authors" claim.

Regarding the "meat", the Greek word kreas etymologically means meat, even raw meat. But words must always be interpreted according to the context.

Compare the name "Bethlehem". In Hebrew, it's bet lehem, the bread house (or town). In Arabic, it is bayt lahm, the meat house (or town). The names must be intrepreted from their contexts: to the farming ex-bedouins, now named Israelites, the staple food was cereals. To the bedouins who still were nomading, it was meat. In all probability, there would have been lots of confusion about the meaning of words when Hebrew, Aramaic , Arabic and Greek met during the writing down of the NT.
 

Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
anders said:
The names must be intrepreted from their contexts: to the farming ex-bedouins, now named Israelites, the staple food was cereals.
A side note: while I suspect strong bedu influence, I seriously doubt that the nascent Israelites where predominantly bedouin.
 

iris89

Active Member
Hi anders

Your comment,
Iris, you should be very silent about asking for evidence, as long as
you refuse even to try to proof your "40 authors" claim.
Is incorrect as I have already given the authors and what they wrote, you must have missed it.

Your Friend in Christ Iris89
 

anders

Well-Known Member
You have "given the authors and what they wrote", but no proof whatsoever, and no serious Bible scholar will agree with you. So, again, what proof besides what the Bible itself says can you provide?
 
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