Isaiah is prophesying that at some unknown future time a new song will be sung by inhabitants all over. What makes something new is that it wasn't known before hand. Otherwise we'd call that "old". I don't know what the "new" song is going to be, because the unknown future time has not yet occurred for me to learn this song. When that time comes, the song will be a brand new never-heard before song. And then I'll know it.
So some 2,300 years and no New Song. I wonder if to Sing a New Song is the same as to Recite a New Revelation?
History shows the people of Ishmael's Son Kedar ra sung a New Song some 1,400 years ago:
And from that Century onwards the New Recitation has been 'Sung' around the World:
Just as predicted in Isaiah 42:
10 Sing a new song to the Lord;
praise him everywhere on earth—
all you who sail on the seas,
everything in the sea,
and all you people in faraway places!
11 Deserts and cities, villages of Kedar, <<<<<<< Descendants of Ishmael pbuh
praise the Lord!
People living in Sela, sing for joy! <<<<<<<City of Medina, where they awaited
Sing from the top of your mountain. A New Prophet.
12 Give glory to the Lord.
Praise him, all you people in faraway lands!
13 The Lord will go out like a strong soldier.
Like a man going into battle, he will be full of excitement.
He will shout with a loud cry,
and he will defeat his enemies.
The time for the inhabitants in the settlements of Kedar to be climbing Mountains and crying out in joy has long past.
Yeah, but you haven't proven that "the wider context of the word" is what's being intended here.
I've shown it's very possible, and you yourself started by claiming it referred to many prophets, yet could only agree on one name, Joshua pbuh, and I showed 34:10 excluded him. So now you are forced to accept you haven't received a Prophet in almost 2500 years! For this reason your Scholars have suggested Balaam a non Jewish Prophet, yet Muhammad pbuh fits the prophecy like a glove.
The book of Jubilees is not in the Jewish cannon. Still, according to Jewish Law Ishmaelites still do have the commandment to circumcise themselves. Either way though, whom Abraham considered to be brothers is irrelevant since it's G-d talking in Deut. 18, not Abraham.
Jewish Law = opinions of Jewish Scholars.
Though you couldn't care less, the Qur'an admonishes Jews ....
They have taken as lords beside Allah their rabbis and their monks and the Messiah son of Mary, when they were bidden to worship only One Allah. There is no Allah save Him. Be He Glorified from all that they ascribe as partner (unto Him)! Qur'an 9:31
What does your Torah say....
Genesis 17:9 Then God said to Abraham, “Now, this is your part of the agreement: You and all your descendants will obey my agreement. 10 This is my agreement that all of you must obey. This is the agreement between me and you and all your descendants. Every male must be circumcised. 11 You will cut the skin to show that you follow the agreement between me and you. 12 When the baby boy is eight days old, you will circumcise him. Every boy born among your people and every boy who is a slave of your people must be circumcised. 13 So every baby boy in your nation will be circumcised. Every boy who is born from your family or bought as a slave will be circumcised. 14 Abraham, this is the agreement between you and me: Any male who is not circumcised will be cut off from his people[d] because he has broken my agreement.”
At this point Abraham pbuh only had One Son, His First Born Ishmael pbuh...
22 After God finished talking with Abraham, God went up into heaven.23 Then Abraham gathered together Ishmael and all the slaves born in his house. He also gathered all the slaves he had bought. Every man and boy in Abraham’s house was gathered together, and they were all circumcised. Abraham circumcised them that day, just as God had told him to do.
24 Abraham was 99 years old when he was circumcised. 25 And Ishmael, his son, was 13 years old when he was circumcised. 26 Abraham and his son were circumcised on the same day. 27 Also, on that day all the men in Abraham’s house were circumcised. All the slaves born in his house and all the slaves he had bought were circumcised.
Any descendant of Ishmael pbuh would have kept the Law and obeyed the religion of their Grandfather, despite what 'Jewish' Law had to say on the matter.
No you haven't. You've interpolated words into the text in order to interpret what "like Moses" means in favor of Muhammad. I called you out on that and you still haven't replied...
34:10-12 has been posted, and you can see no mention of speech impediment, being born to a father named Amran pbuh or any of the other red herrings you mentioned.
Did it include all those individuals? What about Moses? Was he not an Israelite? Did it include him?
Please, Moses pbuh was telling the Israelites about what would come in the future. If GOD had intended Moses pbuh to live a very long life and continue to receive revelation, He could have done just that. Moses pbuh is making it plain and clear, a Prophet like him would arise from amongst their brethren in the future. In the meantime Moses pbuh anointed Joshua pbuh and he led the Israelites.
You can't even produce a Qur'an from the time of Muhammad and you expect a Torah from twice that amount of time? Cute.
Feel free to start a thread comparing preservation of Torah vs Qur'an.
The Jewish commentaries that say that specifically say that about Moses ability to talk to G-d face to face.
Which commentaries say, 34:10 means a Prophet that God spoke to face to face is the criteria used to explain what 'like' Moses pbuh means?