For Christians and Muslims that Oppose Homosexuality:

[Penumbra]

Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 are the two verses in Matthew when Jesus allows divorce in the case of "porneia" which is translated generally as "sexual immorality," but is also interpreted as homosexual acts in 1 Corinthians. One could possibly try to interpret "porneia" in Matthew as being both adultery AND homosexual acts, however.

Here's a list of definitions for porneia:

1. illicit sexual intercourse
   1. adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
   2. sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
   3. sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,
2. metaph. the worship of idols
   1. of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols

Contextually, though, it's clear that Jesus had "adultery" in mind.

Ok, thanks for pointing out which verses you were mentioning.

As I recall, there are no quotes where Jesus' character said anything specifically about homosexuality, so I wanted to make sure you weren't referencing something I'm not familiar with.

 

[asm Jenkins]

Forgive me if my reply to this thread is deemed as "simple" I am but a mere human being myself and not in the least bit complicated. Anyway, what I'd like to ask is concerning this xy business which some people seem to think somehow determines a persons sexuality. So is it right to assume that if your chromosomes are perfect then you would be 100% heterosexual and if they were mixed or whatever, you'd be homosexual or lesbian? God forbid if anyone went through life without being sexually attracted to anyone, eh?