Tazarah
Well-Known Member
Only in your dreams!!! Where do the gospels say anything about homosexuality and why Jesus loved one of his disciples instead of cleaving to a wife?
And in contrast to adultery by ALL remarried divorcees (Mark 10:11-12 Exodus 20:14), which of the ten commandments refers to homosexuality anyway?
Anything Paul wrote is irrelevant since he never even met Jesus. And it still doesn't change the fact that the bible says nothing about female homosexuals anyway, since they do not have anal sex which was described for heterosexual women as "vile" and "unseemly" (Romans 1:26-27).
You can't pick and choose which scriptures to accept. Well, you can -- but that would make you a hypocrite.
The bible says that all scripture is valid and inspired by God, regardless of whether or not you like what they say.
This means that even the scriptures that you claim are not valid for whatever reasons, are in fact valid.
2 TIMOTHY 3:16
"16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"
Also, I've already explained to you that Romans 9:26-27 says nothing about "anal sex" and does say that women were lusting after one another just as the men were lusting after one another.
ROMANS 1:26-27 (NIV)
"26 Beause of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones.
27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.