It is not logic, but definition.
I'll just stop you there. You may want to grab a coffee...
How far afield we have gotten! I take partial blame for following you down that semantic rabbit hole. That's almost always a losing game, as the actual argument rarely gets addressed - and as yet, it hasn't been here.
While I don't pretend to know your intentions, you've managed either innocently or deliberately to construct a subtle but derailing straw man. This has prevented us from discussing the argument presented in my OP. Let's see if we can't burn it to the ground and get on to the business at hand. It will take some doing.
First, how you would choose to define timeless or atemporal is not relevant to this argument, and I'll explain why shortly. I'll look for a moment at those terms just for kicks...
Regarding 'atemporal'; the use of the 'a-' prefix indicates negation, from both the Latin and Greek roots. It means either 'not', 'lacking' or 'without'. A few examples for illustration -
a-symmetry - lack of - symmetry
a-naemia - lack of - blood
a-sexual - lacking - sex or functional sex organs, or not - sexual
a-sylum - without - syle ('right of seizure')
a-systole - no - systole (cardiac electrical activity)
a-theist - without / lack of - theism (or, belief in, god(s))
If you find temporal to be a special case where the use of the 'a-' prefix has some other effect on its meaning, so be it. I contend that you are simply wrong, but we can discard the term, as in that case, it doesn't refer to that which I was arguing against anyway. It's therefore a straw man.
Regarding 'timeless'; Much of the same applies. Consider other applications of the suffix '-less' (an adjective meaning: without, missing) and the resulting definitions -
bound-less - without - boundaries or limits
guilt-less - having no - guilt
end-less - without - end
point-less - not having - a point
Again, if when dealing with 'temporal', adding '-less' has some effect I didn't anticipate, then we can discard it as well to avoid confusion.
(There is of course a colloquial use of timeless as applied to, for example, music. Said music 'transcends' the typical trappings of its era, etc. If you were using it in this way to describe god, that seems at least coherent - but it isn't how I was using it in the argument (as, that isn't how those arguing for a 'timeless god' were using it), so again it isn't relevant and becomes a straw man)
I thought all of this might have been avoided had you simply read and understood the OP. I specifically said;
"For the moment, I'll put aside that
this term has no meaning for me. Suffice to say that
those who use the term seem to mean outside of, unaffected by or beyond time."
I made it clear what I was arguing against - a definition that theists came up with - and you decided to overlook this and argue semantics instead. What term you choose to apply to the meaning involved doesn't concern me. You may call it zing-tolly for all that it will matter. It does not effect the argument one way or the other.
One last thing before I move on - the definition you supplied;
"Independent of time"
This neither implies 'eternal' or 'simultaneously existing in multiple times' as you suggest, nor does it negate 'cannot interact with time'. It wasn't terribly helpful in other words.
The point - if it helps to clarify things for you, we can
eliminate this terminology altogether, and simply refer to the state I am arguing against as
state 'x', which I will attempt to outline (again).
state 'x' - a state completely devoid of time
Simple enough, yes? But to further clarify and expound on that a bit -
state 'x' - a state where;
1) there are no succession of events, as this can only occur
within time
2) no change occurs, as change requires a movement/transition from one state to another - i.e., a succession of events, as in 1)
3) from 1) and 2) we can extrapolate that in state 'x' there could be no movement, action, thought, consciousness, as all of these things require something of 1) or 2) to come to fruition, or even to begin to come to fruition
4) Essentially, such a state 'x' would be a form of stasis from which nothing could escape. Anything within such a state would necessarily remain static, frozen and unable to emerge into any sort of temporal state. To do so would require the very conditions available only
within time, which of course are not available in the static state 'x'.
If you could describe how something might exist in and then leave such a state ('x') without the use of temporal agents, I'd certainly be interested in hearing it.
That, my friend, would be arguing against my position.
If you disagree with any of my conclusions about such a state 'x' as described, please explain your objections.
At this point, if you contend that such a state is not possible or incoherent, or that the Christian deity was never in such a state, then we have no argument, as these are my contentions as well.
******deeeeep breath******
Now, unshackled from inane semantics (I hope!), we have state 'x' as described above - as a state completely disconnected from and devoid of, time and all its trappings and benefits.
It is in
this state that some theists/theologians (perhaps most notably, William Craig), argue that their deity once existed, but has ceased to do so since 'creation'.
I believe they do so out of necessity, as they believe that god created time along with everything else (else he would be 'subject' to it - a philosophical problem they wish to avoid). This necessitates some state of being for god 'prior to' (if you will) the existence of time - my state 'x'.
They further claim that god somehow moved from that state 'x' to one that included time, presumably the moment he created it (?). This is circular and nonsensical.
It is my contention that;
1) No such state 'x' is named, discussed or eluded to in the Christian Bible. I am somewhat less concerned with this first point, as the idea of an entity moving from state 'x' to a temporal state is logically indefensible, regardless of Biblical support. That said, I find no such support.
2) It is logically impossible for any thing to move from state 'x' to a temporal state for all the reasons I have mentioned, and I have heard no arguments to defend such a position outside of an appeal to magic ('god is mysterious'). That is, of course, no argument at all.
So there you have it.