Katzpur
Not your average Mormon
Absolutely. Definitely. Positively.Do LDS members disbelieve in substitutionary atonement?
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Absolutely. Definitely. Positively.Do LDS members disbelieve in substitutionary atonement?
I'm a bit disconcerted. I regard my LDS brothers as just that. Do LDS members disbelieve in substitutionary atonement?
1) REGARDING THE NEED FOR HONEST AND ACCURATE COMMUNICATION
BilliardsBall claimed : "It was made clear by another post contributor that I should confine my remarks to canon." Post #72
You were caught mis-using non-canonical sources to create inaccurate impressions regarding what the LDS believe. You have been caught offering small inaccuracies in your claims that embellish and change points so that they are not “quite” the truth. (for example, the statement above….) The fact that you have caught doing this is a reminder to us all that trying to create inaccurate impressions about another person or their belief, is a form of bearing false witness.
Due to this unfortunate history you have, I hope you don’t mind if we check the accuracy of your new witness in the context of there being only Jehovah as a being who is designated as a god. You quoted certain scriptures.
Will you give us the actual, full quote and scripture reference for your quotation : “only God” and for your quotation : "Before me, no other gods were nor shall there be any after me"
I've done a google search and cannot find the quotes as you have quoted them and I am hesitant to conclude that you have "embellished" scriptures themselves...
2) REGARDING BILLIARDSBALLS' MODERN THEORY THAT ONLY JEHOVAH CAN HAVE THE DESIGNATION OF "GOD"
Clear said in post # 70 : AN EXAMPLE FROM CURRENT CONTEXT
As we’ve seen demonstrated multiple times, the early Judeo-Christian texts apply the term "God", "God-like", "like God", "the pious", "sacred ones", etc. to beings who are not the Lord God. The recent dogmatic insistence by a modern christian that early Judeo-Christians cannot use the designation of the term “god” for ANY other thing besides the Lord God and idols is a dogmatic position but not a historical position.
For example, Exodus 7:1 reads And "Jehovah/Lord" said to Moses, See, I give you [to be] god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall [be] thy prophet.
וַיֹּאמֶר יְהוָה אֶל-מֹשֶׁה, רְאֵה נְתַתִּיךָ אֱלֹהִים לְפַרְעֹה; וְאַהֲרֹן אָחִיךָ, יִהְיֶה נְבִיאֶךָ. (t.r.)
καὶ εἶπεν κύριος πρὸς Μωυσῆν λέγων ἰδοὺ δέδωκά σε θεὸν Φαραω καὶ Ααρων ὁ ἀδελφός σου ἔσται σου προφήτης (LXX)
While the historian of Early Judeo-Christian religion is perfectly comfortable with this term and it’s early usage, the dogmatists' theory is undermined by this usage of the term "god" applied to a man (Moses in this case).
The use of the concept and word “god” or being “godly (i.e. “godlike” / “like god”) is no longer used in most of the modern Christian systems of belief in the same way as it was used anciently, so that it seems foreign to the modern Christian worldviews. If the dogmatist cannot place such occurrences into the early historical context of a specific designation having a proper use in historical Judeo-Christianity, then the concept of calling Moses a “god” can seem disorienting. It is the same with the designation of any other being as a God.
BillardsBall replied #73 That all sounds good. Except I'm unsure of how we might use any kind of context to misunderstand terms like "no other" or "only God" or "Before me, no other gods were nor shall there be any after me".
I agree that you are ignorant of ancient languages and it's terms, and thus, “unsure” of how you’ve misunderstand ancient terms. If your present theory prohibits Moses from being a god in any sense, then your theory is going to have change if it wants to survive in historical reality. How are you going to change your theory to deal with Moses being designated as a god?
Clear
νεδρδρω
Mormonism asserts the reality of the atonement. It is fundamental to the Plan of Salvation. As to how the atonement operates, that is something else. Mormonism is not an orthodoxic faith. It is orthopraxic. Meaning there is nothing remotely close to say the Catechism of the Catholic Church that defines a taxonomy of right belief. Mormonism does not have a theology. There is no Summa Theologica that lays out a full metaphysics. Rather the basic thrust is to see Christ as the Savior and exemplar, the belief in personal revelation and the attempt to pursue the good. So, while Mormons accept the atonement, and there are Mormons who would even opt for the same model of the atonement you proffered, there is no set delineation on the how of the atonement. Your model, that is more technically referred to as the penal substitution model, is but one of at least seven different ways of understanding how the atonement operates I can name without thinking about it.
I asked you to flush out your sense on the atonement because you conflated perfection and sinlessness and followed it with stating perfection is not a moral category. I think this is problematic. The atonement model you put forward is similarly problematic in that you seem to violate a base notion of justice: that the innocent ought not to suffer and the guilty go unpunished. The penal substitution model runs contra the idea of justice. If that is your view, then how does one justify it under any rational model of justice? It would appear one must either abandon reason or admit their model is unjust and thereby immoral. My guess is that you have adopted a positioning on the atonement that parallels what Clear was pointing out regarding views on the notion of God's singularity. A henotheistic understanding of Deity is more aligned to the ancient view of the Hebrews that can be seen from the Ugaritic texts up through at least the return from the Exile (and even later, depending on the scholarship one looks to). The same can be said of the atonement. The model you have opted for is by and large a Modernist construct whose roots lay in the 16th Century and the Reformed Thought of Calvin.
Being like Heavenly Father is, indeed, a commandment, not merely a suggestion, but I'm not sure where you're getting the idea that we must be perfect in order to be saved. Could you explain? Also, what do you mean by "perfect"? The dictionary gives a couple of different definitions, so I'd like to know what you see the word as meaning.One more thought if I may?
Jesus said in the gospels "Be ye perfect, even as your Heavenly Father is perfect." We must be like Heavenly Father to be saved. My doctrine re: perfection imputed isn't Modernist, it's biblical.
Jesus suffered. Justice was done. (And please don't take this personally, I respect you, but the atheists SOLIDLY/uniformly agree that substitutionary atonement lacks justice and is immoral).
I'm conversant with the idea that this presentation of substitutionary atonement is Modernist. Yet I've also observed that among the thousands of denominations that have arisen from Bible readers who constructed basic points of doctrine independently since that time, all of them have substitutionary atonement, which is why I'm confident in saying that it is a Biblicist position (which even the reformers only got right in part--I don't believe in limited atonement, for one of many examples).
I would say, therefore, that salvation is imputed, and that I'm both saved and living for Jesus, not to be saved, but for gratitude. If you rescued me from drowning, I'd thank you, not chastise you. Jesus saved me long ago and I try to do right by Him in return.
I was unaware you have seven different views on the atonement. But can we come to any conclusion when I proffer to you an eighth? How can we debate if you don't have a resolution to defend? I apologize for my confusion here if I'm misrepresenting your personal stance.
Clear said : As an example of the use of the designation of being as a “god”, Exodus 7:1 reads
And the Lord said to Moses, See, I give you [to be/as] god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall [be] thy prophet.
BillairdsBall now says “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83)
BilliardsBall, you said “I'm willing to change my viewpoint on this doctrine, certainly…”, but I did not realize you were going to change so rapidly. I appreciate your admission that that Jehovah gave Moses to be a God, just as Exo 7:1 says he was. Now that you claim you are also God as well (an "ambassadorial "type" of a God as a category). Perhaps this new theory of yours will help you begin to see other applications for this designation. How does your own newly discovered Godhood change several aspects of your prior theory?
1) For example, though you now say “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83) However you said before that “…there are no other gods but idols that represent divinities, behind which are the powers of demons. " (post 26) Now you claim that you are God. Does your claim to be a God mean that you are an "idol" and have a demon as your prior theory suggests, or have you modified your theory to now recognize other types of beings with the designation of Gods who are NOT idols and do not have the powers of demons. If you now are also claiming to have the power of a demon, what is that power? Is it like a super-power and will it allow you to now make truthful claims and give us correct and accurate quotes without embellishment? What is the power your demon bestows upon you now that you are a God? Or, do you now recognize that NOT all beings designated gods are in the narrow category you described in your prior theory?
2) For example, though you now say “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83) You said in post 49 “…every other God besides YHVH is to be utterly destroyed. “
Now that you are a God, do you plan suicide or some other sort of “self-destruction” or does your theory now recognize that not all beings designated “gods” are to be destroyed?
3) For example, though you now say “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83) You said in post 54 “We can actually destroy idols but not other gods, since other gods do not exist."
Since you are now claiming that you are a God, in this new theoretical twist, are you now claiming that you don’t exist, or that you do exist but you cannot be destroyed or that there is another universe in which all of your claims can be true and rational and logical? OR, since you are now claiming to be a God, you are now allowing that not all beings designated gods are idols (since, I assume, you are not claiming to be an "idol" as well as a god??) and you are allowing that you, as a god, exist.
4) For example, though you now say “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83) You said in post 57 : “ in 1 Corinthians that idols (statues to gods of the Gentiles, the Jews were forbidden from erecting graven images of YHVH) were nothing, and that behind them was the power of demons, and that he wanted Christians to not offer food to demons?
Does this mean you cannot accept any invitations to lunch or to dinner parties, or has your main theory adjusted to allow mortal-Gods, like Moses and yourself to accept dinner invitations? That is, does this scripture even apply to ALL beings that are designated "god", or, are you now theorizing that there are some other beings designated as a "god", like you and Moses, that are NOT what is meant by such scriptures?
5) For example, though you now say “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83) You said in post 61 : “I will not ever progress toward godhood. “
Since you now claim that you ARE a God, does your current theory still deny “progress” toward Godhood? That is, are you now claiming that your Godhood was spontaneous, like a sort of “spontaneous combustion” or arbitrary cosmic conditions coming to a head like Peter Parker being bitten by a radioactive spider? If you did not “progress” toward the godhood you now claim you have, then how did you achieve your godhood?
6) For example, though you now say “…Moses was god to Pharaoh…” and “… I'm God…” (post # 83) You said in post 73 : “… I'm unsure of how we might use any kind of context to misunderstand terms like "no other" or "only God" or "Before me, no other gods were nor shall there be any after me".”
Presumably, it is obvious that your “Godiness” came (temporally), AFTER Jehovahs Godhood. Does the fact that Moses and you have both achieved godhood, change your interpretation or are you now willing to admit that there are beings other than Jehovah who have been designated “gods”, especially since you now claim that you, yourself have this designation.
I honestly HOPE that with your new Godliness, you will learn not to embellish scriptures since the scripture you quoted (I alluded to it in post #80) doesn't exist in any english nor greek nor hebrew bible that I've been able to search on google. It doesn't even exist in the reference you provided us. I think your "scripture" as quoted is incorrect and represents yet one more embellished misquote. Are you able to admit that you "fudged" and "embellished" the biblical text, (as readers can already see for themselves)?
In any case, despite your claim to be a god, do not expect us to worship you and I do not believe I will be punished by God if I offer food to you by inviting you to lunch. In any case, I honestly wish you the best spiritual journey in this life as you work out your theories.
Clear
ειτζφινεω
Being like Heavenly Father is, indeed, a commandment, not merely a suggestion, but I'm not sure where you're getting the idea that we must be perfect in order to be saved. Could you explain? Also, what do you mean by "perfect"? The dictionary gives a couple of different definitions, so I'd like to know what you see the word as meaning.
A logical critique is not dependent on the personal beliefs of any interlocutor, whether they be an atheist, Buddhist, or suffers from exposure to Country Music. Rationality is concerned with the validity of the argument, not personal sentiments. Per the Penal Substitution Atonement model: the challenge I presented is that it is at it's core unjust and therefore, immoral. If it is unjust and immoral, then it cannot be associated with Deity. I gave a definitional argument, it violates the notion of what is just: that the innocent ought not to suffer or the guilty go unpunished. Your statement "Jesus suffered. Justice was done" does not follow. How does the suffering of an innocent constitute justice? Simple assertion that one leads to the other will not do.
Per substitutionary atonement and Modernity: something does not become Biblical simply because X number hold to view Y. Quantity does not constitute rectitude. The most quantity can accomplish is consensus. If all the world believed the moon is made of blue cheese would not make it so. Further, to assert a Modernist (and therefore by definition contrived) understanding is Biblical is anachronistic. In other words, given the writers and compilers of the text were not Calvinists, or in any way connected to Reformed Christianity, Calvinist hermeneutics are on their face flawed.
Finally, your statement that perfection is not a moral category remains unexplained. Deity's goodness is arguably an essential trait. If you hold:
1) God is good
2) Men must be like God to be saved (per your post #85)
3) Then, men must be good to be saved.
If you reject 1) then God is unworthy of devotion.
Note: so it's clear, I stated I was aware of seven different versions of the atonement. These come from larger Christian Theology.
I'd say we believe in a combination of #1 and #2. What we must "do" in order to have our sins forgiven is sincerely repent of them. This involves recognizing what we have done wrong, feeling sincere remorse for our wrong-doing, and making a real commitment to do better in the future.Our sins must be forgiven for us to be saved. I see three possibilities in the scriptures that require hermeneutics to choose the correct one:
1. Jesus forgives sin
2. We may do actions to have our sins dissolved/forgiven
3. A combination of 1 and 2
Do LDS members believe in 2 or 3? Thank you.
I'd say we believe in a combination of #1 and #2. What we must "do" in order to have our sins forgiven is sincerely repent of them. This involves recognizing what we have done wrong, feeling sincere remorse for our wrong-doing, and making a real commitment to do better in the future.
I'm still unclear as to how forgiveness of our sins makes us perfect, though.
I agree that the Bible teaches that sin is imperfection. What the Bible does not teach is that the lack of sin is perfection. Even a person who is without sin is not necessarily perfect. He has yet to attain perfection in terms of his knowledge and capabilities.Sin in the Bible is imperfection. To have one's sins removed is to be without imperfection and thus able to enter a perfect place in the next world. If we have strife in the next world, if I hurt you or cause you distress, it is no longer a perfect utopia. Only perfect people can reside in a perfect place without marring its perfection.
I know what you mean, and I find the way you put it ("Jesus saves kind of, but I have to also") as being pretty misleading. Numerous New Testament passages teach that we are to be active participants in the process of our salvation. I could easily provide you with perhaps a dozen examples. This one, though, is as clear as can be:Part of my doctrine extends from whether we are #1 or #2 or both regarding salvation. Either I will make dinner tonight for the family or my spouse will or we both will. Jesus saves, not Jesus saves kind of but I have to also... you know what I mean?
Calvinists don't believe in assurance or unlimited atonement. I'm neither Calvinist nor Armenian. I'm a Biblicist.
I agree that innocents should not suffer. Indeed, God hates when innocents suffer. However, I have preached on the atonement as an example of God Himself choosing the higher law. But before we confuse the issue further, may I ask you for what reason Jesus died and rose? I thought it was for salvation for others. I thought the animal sacrifices pointed to Christ. Those covered sin on a temporary basis only (Hebrews) but in literally millions of sacrifices, covered the guilty with the blood of the innocent.
I agree that the Bible teaches that sin is imperfection. What the Bible does not teach is that the lack of sin is perfection. Even a person who is without sin is not necessarily perfect. He has yet to attain perfection in terms of his knowledge and capabilities.
I know what you mean, and I find the way you put it ("Jesus saves kind of, but I have to also") as being pretty misleading. Numerous New Testament passages teach that we are to be active participants in the process of our salvation. I could easily provide you with perhaps a dozen examples. This one, though, is as clear as can be:
Hebrews 5:9 And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him.
Jesus expects something from us besides a mere confession of belief. He expects our full commitment to Him. That doesn't mean we can save ourselves. This is something that is completely beyond our capability as human beings to do. Every last one of us absolutely, positively needs Jesus Christ in order to be saved.
Yes, I know that most who identify as Christians identify as helpers, workers and partners in salvation. But to be honest, the scriptures indicate to my understanding that I should be concerned that people understand the true, clear gospel. When I take the bus somewhere, I wholly trust the bus driver to take me to my destination. I rest on the bus, and I need not work to help the driver, I don't read the map, use the GPS, honk the bus horn, etc. My understanding is that Jesus takes us to Heaven/the new age without our aid. If you asked me where the door is to the third heaven, I couldn't say. I can say the front door on Pennsylvania Avenue gets you in the White House, but Jesus said, "I AM the door."
Question: Can one be forced to heaven against their will? Per your analogy, how does one get on the bus, do they enter themselves, or are they forced on?