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Greek Myth vs. Christian belief

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Let's assume for the moment that Acts is historical is not the same thing as treating Acts as if it's historical when it suits me.

It is in this case. You specifically argued that Acts is mythical and that the later Gospels and acts cannot and should not be used to interpret Paul. Then you turned around and did exactly that, to bolster your ridiculous argument that James the brother of the lord isn't a brother.




Secondly, this had nothing whatsoever to do with the meaning of the word brother.
Do you know what the word "bolster" means? Is english a second language for you? I said that you used acts in order to bolster you argument the reference to Jesus' brother in James isn't an actual brother. I never said that you used it as proof that "brother" doesn't actually mean "brother."

It had to do with the fact that there are more than one James in question and the controversy as to which James Paul was meeting with.
Actually, the controversy only exists if you do exactly what you say we shouldn't: read paul through the lens of Acts by treating Acts as anything more than "second century myth making." So you treat acts as historical, when it seems to bolster (see dictionary.com) you argument about James as Jesus' brother, but reject anything it says about the historical Jesus or his followers as actual followers of the historical Jesus.


In fact, it was based on the assumption that we were to take the meaning of the word brother to mean blood sibling.

And you have yet to provide a single reference where the standard phrase to show blood relation "brother of X" is used in a different sense.




Where does Wells state that the dying and rising Christ of the early epistles is not historical?
When he says that the person who is identified in Q, Jesus, should not be identified with Christ.


Where does he say Jesus is historical? [/QUOTE]
The person Q talks about is Jesus. Q consists of passages starting with things like "and Jesus said." Wells argues that Q has a historical layer, and therefore Jesus is historical. However, he argues that the Jesus of Q should not be confused with the Christ of the gospels.


I'm reading what you just posted from a website (heaven forbid if I post from a website)
You seem to be missing the whole point behind my posting. I don't consider the website a valid source, nor do I consider Wells a valid source. I used it to show your own sources disagree with you, in that Wells believe parts of Q go back to Jesus, and that Paul believed Jesus was historical.
 

dogsgod

Well-Known Member
It is in this case. You specifically argued that Acts is mythical and that the later Gospels and acts cannot and should not be used to interpret Paul. Then you turned around and did exactly that, to bolster your ridiculous argument that James the brother of the lord isn't a brother.





Do you know what the word "bolster" means? Is english a second language for you? I said that you used acts in order to bolster you argument the reference to Jesus' brother in James isn't an actual brother. I never said that you used it as proof that "brother" doesn't actually mean "brother."


Actually, the controversy only exists if you do exactly what you say we shouldn't: read paul through the lens of Acts by treating Acts as anything more than "second century myth making." So you treat acts as historical, when it seems to bolster (see dictionary.com) you argument about James as Jesus' brother, but reject anything it says about the historical Jesus or his followers as actual followers of the historical Jesus.




And you have yet to provide a single reference where the standard phrase to show blood relation "brother of X" is used in a different sense.

You really are foolish about this. If you were to ask that we assume for a moment that Acts is mythical in order to see what conclusion can be drawn from that view in regards to a certain matter, no one should take offense by it or criticize you for attempting to test that view.





When he says that the person who is identified in Q, Jesus, should not be identified with Christ.


Where does he say Jesus is historical?
The person Q talks about is Jesus. Q consists of passages starting with things like "and Jesus said." Wells argues that Q has a historical layer, and therefore Jesus is historical. However, he argues that the Jesus of Q should not be confused with the Christ of the gospels.



You seem to be missing the whole point behind my posting. I don't consider the website a valid source, nor do I consider Wells a valid source. I used it to show your own sources disagree with you, in that Wells believe parts of Q go back to Jesus, and that Paul believed Jesus was historical.
According to Wells, does Q refer to the same historical person that you refer to?

According to Wells, is Paul's so called historical Jesus the same person you consider to be historical.

I ask because I wonder if you even know what you are opposed to.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
You really are foolish about this. If you were to ask that we assume for a moment that Acts is mythical in order to see what conclusion can be drawn from that view in regards to a certain matter, no one should take offense by it.

You do. You have specifically stated that we shouldn't do that. That we shouldn't read Paul through the lens of the later literature. Then you go ahead and do exactly what you say shouldn't be done.

You have to make up your mind. Either acts is historical, in which case you can use it to see if it bolsters your argument about James not being Jesus' brother (but then you have to deal with its presentation of the historical Jesus), or it isn't, in which case you can't.

If we "assume for the moment that acts is historical" than the whole question of brotherhood is moot because Acts says Jesus is historical. Your statement "let's assume acts is historical" was foolish and it specifically contradicted you own previous advice and that assumption makes the argument about James as Jesus' brother unnecessary.







According to Wells, does Q refer to the same historical person that you refer to?

In a sense. We both believe that Q contains a core of sayings which date back to a historical Jesus preacher. However, I argue (along with everyone else) that much more of the gospels than the small amount that Wells deems historical is historical.

According to Wells, is Paul's so called historical Jesus the same person you consider to be historical.
This statement is logically flawed, so I'm not sure I understand what you are asking. The question, as it stands, asks whether Wells makes a judgment concerning Paul's stance in relation to my own. I am going to assume that you meant something different. Wells thinks that Paul thought Jesus was historical. However, he also thinks that Paul barely touches on the historical Jesus, believed that Jesus pre-existed prior his life on earth, that his life on earth was not important, and that Paul fit Jesus into a particular mold. In other words, Wells argues that nothing Paul says about Jesus should be read back to the historical Jesus, but as an aspect of the mythical Christ. I agree with Wells that Paul thought Jesus was historical. I disagree with the rest. Paul's Jesus is not a reconstruction, and although Paul seldom mentions anything worthwhile about the historical Jesus he does do so occasionally.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
Dogsgod, you seem to have an issue understanding how the phrase "let's assume for the sake of argument that X is true." The whole point of the statement is that even if X is assumed, your argument holds true.

For example, I was debating with one of my old classics professors on whether or not Euripides was misogynist and to what extent. Without getting into the details of the debate, she said that my argument depended on the audience at athenian drama being either wholly or mostly male. I said "let's assume for the sake of argument that the audience was 50/50 male and female." It doesn't matter, because Euripides was living in a sexist society where the intellectual, political, and literary spheres were dominated by men, so that even if the audience was composed 50% female Euripides' peers and the judges were all male, so that was his real audience.


In other words, when I said let's assume for the sake of argument that X is true, I proceeded to argue that I would still be correct. However, your use of the phrase defeats your central point (Jesus is mythical). You argue that Acts is mythical, but "for the sake of argument" you treat it as historical to bolster a point about whether James was Jesus' brother. However, in doing so you defeat your central argument, which is after all not that James wasn't Jesus' brother but that Jesus never existed (and therefore couldn't have brothers).

So, as I said, you used Acts as historical to suit a specific purpose, but treat it as mythical when it suits another.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member


I have to apologize. I didn't read the google books quotation carefully enough. It actually isn't talking about the reference to James as the brother of Jesus. This is the reference actually accepted by almost all experts as genuine Josephus. In fact, the book you quote goes on to say (page 434) that "The passage about James (A XX 197-203) has been generally accepted as authentic." Your quotation is talking about the longer reference to Jesus, which (as I said) there is a consensus that part of it goes back to Josephus, but that it has been altered (and I agree). I already went over some reasons for accepting part of the longer reference as genuine (such as typical Josephan vocabulary).

So, even if we were to take the minority and more extreme view that all of the longer reference is an addition, that still leaves us with the second reference which talks about Jesus (the so-called Christ) as the brother of James.
 
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dogsgod

Well-Known Member
dogsgod can't assume for arguments sake because the almighty Oberon has spoken. :bow:
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
dogsgod can't assume for arguments sake because the almighty Oberon has spoken. :bow:

Assume all you want. But when you assume (even for the sake of argument) you have to accept what comes with that assumptions. You can't say "let's assume acts is historical" without then dealing with the blow that does to your central argument.

This is your argument:

1) Acts and the gospels are mythic and can't be read into Paul
2) Acts can be used to show that the James Paul refers to as Jesus' brother actually isn't

You don't see that these two arguments are mutually exclusive?
 

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
I disagree with how easily Jesus's existance is accepted as fact. Obviously this is a discussion for another debate, but not everyone (Religious or Atheist) believes he was real.

Yes, this is true....even considering that some one here said he had a contemporary. This is true and not true. It is true he had a contemporary but this particular contemporary never ever met him.

One mans' religion is anothers' mythology and vice versa.....
 

themadhair

Well-Known Member
I can respond by saying "we can't know how old the fossils are." You could respond by saying "well, carbon dating" and I can respond by an asking for a detailed explanation on carbon dating.
Why would you appeal to carbon dating here???? You really seem intent on stretching this analogy, but you are further emphasising the differences in the process. You use rock layer depth. You point out those creatures no longer exist. Why the hell you think introducing carbon dating here is beyond me unless you are simply trying to stretch the analogy.

How old are these fossils?
Doesn’t matter. It isn’t necessary to date those fossils in order to evidence evolution.


That is because here you probably know something about the issue itself, whereas with the historical Jesus you don't know any of the relevant information.
The lack of comparable evidences that can stand independently of other areas of study is rather a massive difference don’t you think? How does establishing the gospels stemmed from an oral position establish the historicity of the person for example? Surely what you have done is establish a common source for those traditions, which seem to be equally supportive of a storyteller as a historical Jesus?

Any evidence you marshal, I can ask whether you performed the experiments yourself, and even if you did, I can say that "carbon dating" can't prove age an so on, leaving you with the option to either build science from the ground up, or cite authorities, or just give up in frustration with someone who either is unwilling to either do research and won't accept any sort of evidence unless it is incredibly detailed and researched on every point.
This is why I choose pieces of evidence that can stand on their own. The more you try to make the analogy work the more I’m seeing the differences between science and history.

Actually [size=+3]they[/size] have. Your statment is baseless because you say that "scholars appear to have done X" without ever reading anything they wrote.
This is further emphasising the difference. Again, instead of evidencing what proves the gospels to be of that genre you use authority of scholars to make the argument. If I seen anybody defending evolution in this way I’d call them out on it too.

Simarily, your statement that you can't see the difference between the mythic genre and the gospels, or can't accept the gospels as ancient history, is likewise ridiculous to me, as I am familiar with the topics.
Strawman me why don’t you. I have said what you are doing here is a multichotomy. Why can the gospels not be more than one genre?

Actually, it will, unless you want to explain all of scientific inquiry related to the theory of evolution from the beginning (carbon dating, genetics, etc).
How did explaining a few pieces of self-contained evidence devolve into writing a treatise? Oh wait, that would be trying to get further mileage out of a faulty analogy.


Wrong. Scientific theories are accepted via consensus just like any field of scholarship. Furthermore, they build off of more scholarship.
This is true. This is, however, utterly irrelevant since explaining a few supporting pieces of evidences for a particularly theory doesn’t require an appeal to authority for that theory.

… I could continue to point to every piece of evidence you marshal and make you explain how it shows anything (like the fossils) and you would (again) have to appeal both to the experiments and publications by experts and continue to detail the issue from the ground up.
You could indeed. I would still have presented some self-contained evidence without resorting to appeals to authority.

Again, how do you know that the fossils aren't simply from creatures who all lived and died 6000 years ago?
This wouldn’t be necessary to evidence evolution. Stop battering this false analogy.

All of those would. See above.
???? How?????

You claim the "differentiation can't be made" despite the fact that it really can.
Strawman. I’m claiming that you haven’t presented evidence to me that makes me think such a differentiation is the most likely explanation.

And in order to show this, beyond what I have done, I would have to write a book which details all of ancient history and myth and compares it to the gospels, or I can refer you to works which do this.
If you have to do this then the analogy really doesn’t hold. Self-contained evidences should be sufficient. But the extent of which authoritative appeals permeate what you present might make that impossible.

The problem here is that you haven't actually read the book. Also, it would be interesting to know what what studies they cite. Because I know very well (and again, I will get to this later) that [size=+3]scholarly concensus[/size] is that parts of the larger reference and (even more so) all of the second are Josephan.
Why do I even bother trying to highlight the failure of your analogy? Surely rereading your own posts should be sufficient for that. I swear I have never in my entire history of defending evolutionary theory relied upon authority anywhere near the level you have.

So, even if we were to take the minority and more extreme view that all of the longer reference is an addition, that still leaves us with the second reference which talks about Jesus (the so-called Christ) as the brother of James.
This is true. I never disputed this and I’m somewhat glad that you realised I was not.

Tell me this, Oberon, how would a storyteller who told the story of Jesus to a crowd who passed it on as oral tradition be in contradiction to any evidence you have presented? I’m not being facetious when I ask this question.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Why would you appeal to carbon dating here???? You really seem intent on stretching this analogy, but you are further emphasising the differences in the process. You use rock layer depth. You point out those creatures no longer exist.

Fine. Lets go with your arguments. What does rock layer depth have to do with it? So the creatures died out, but so what? Why does that mean they evolved? And so on. Again, check out some of the arguments that people here use against evolution. They remind me a great deal of yours or of dogsgod's: either from people who have to have everything explained to them from the ground up, or who are relying on a few people (mostly people with nothing close to expertise) who contradict the scientific consensus.

Doesn’t matter. It isn’t necessary to date those fossils in order to evidence evolution.

Ok, can't it be the case that they were all present six thousand years ago, and then some have died?


The lack of comparable evidences that can stand independently of other areas of study is rather a massive difference don’t you think?
You are wrong about your "independent evidence." Why do you think Darwin and his sucessors wrote so much to explain and defend their theories? Because nothing about them was "self-contained" or independent. Rather, they built off of previous research and used existing theories in order to argue their own theories.


How does establishing the gospels stemmed from an oral position establish the historicity of the person for example? Surely what you have done is establish a common source for those traditions, which seem to be equally supportive of a storyteller as a historical Jesus?

Wrong. Because if you actually knew anything about oral tradition, you would know that both cross-culturally and in similar cultures to the Jesus tradition (in fact, in every oral or primarily oral culture we know of) story-telling is not treated the way the Jesus tradition is. Rather, emphasis is placed on the ability to retell the story, to innovate, to change things to make it more interesting, and so on. The Jesus tradition falls into "oral history" (which was shortly recorded in writing) not story telling. Also, you have yet to offer a plausible explanation of christianity. I have pointed out that none of the "godman" cults or cultic traditions based on myth have biographies and references to the life and teaching of their "godman" within a generation or so of the time. Why did people start believing in it, if not because followers of Jesus spread his message and teachings? Other cults in this culture never began that way, and in addition the early christians were killed for their beliefs. It isn't like Paul or any other missionaries received political power or monetary rewards. He died for his conversion.




This is why I choose pieces of evidence that can stand on their own. The more you try to make the analogy work the more I’m seeing the differences between science and history.

First, I will say that you are absolutely correct when you point out a difference between history and science. However, you are absolutely wrong when you say that your evidence stands on its own. Fossils don't prove anything to people who don't know anything. They are just remnants of animals which died after the world was created 6000 years ago.


This is further emphasising the difference. Again, instead of evidencing what proves the gospels to be of that genre you use authority of scholars to make the argument. If I seen anybody defending evolution in this way I’d call them out on it too.

I can call you out in exactly the same way for your arguments so far for evolution, and I have. We both no my objections are ridiculous, but that is because we both believe and have read the research on evolution. None of your arguments mean anything on their own.

As for proving the gospels belong to this genre, that is a large project (which has been done by more than one expert, and I gave you the references). It involves surveying the type of literary devices and methodologies employed by biographers in the ancient world, and then comparing them to the gospels. Short of writing hundreds of pages, how would you like me to do that for you?



I have said what you are doing here is a multichotomy.


I have to say something, as you have used this word many times now. I am sure you didn't coin the word multichotomy, but you and whoever did look pretty foolish when you use it. It is considered very bad form to coin technical terms based on both greek and latin. It happens, but usually when people in fields who don't know the latin and greek try to coin terms from latin and greek. For example, I rember reading some social sociologist who coined the term "multiphrenia" to describe different personalities people exhibit in different situations. He knew enough to know that "multi" means "many" and was familiar with schizophrenia, but did not know that "schizo" is from a greek verb and "prenia" from a greek noun, but "multi" is latin. If he had coined polyphrenia, the word would have been semantically identical and he wouldn't have looked like an idiot.

Your multichotomy is even worse. Dichotomy doesn't come from "di" and "chotomy" but rather from the greek "dichatomos, itself formed from "dicha" and "tome" (cut in two). In other words, not only does your word use two different languges, you combine a latin prefix with a word that doesn't exist in any language ("chotomy"). I already have to deal with this in mathematics with the "law of trichotomy." At the very least, if you don't want to say "polytomy" you could at least say "polychotomy" rather than "mulitchotomy" and you wouldn't be combining languages.

Why can the gospels not be more than one genre?
Let's say for the sake of argument that they are. What matters then is if one of those genres is ancient biography, because if it is, then the authors consciously recorded history.


How did explaining a few pieces of self-contained evidence devolve into writing a treatise? Oh wait, that would be trying to get further mileage out of a faulty analogy.

I already said that nothing you said would convince somebody who knew nothing on about the issue. So what if there are fossils buried at different levels? They all died after god created the world and happen to be buried at different levels.


This is true. This is, however, utterly irrelevant since explaining a few supporting pieces of evidences for a particularly theory doesn’t require an appeal to authority for that theory.

It does if the person doesn't know or accept the pieces of evidence as evidence. Nothing you have presented about evolution would be convincing to anyone who knew nothing about it and wasn't prepared to accept it.

You could indeed. I would still have presented some self-contained evidence without resorting to appeals to authority.

Do that. I guarentee you I can take the same road you do. Whatever you pull up, I can come up with some argument that explains the evidence in a different light, until you either build every scientific argument related to evolution from the ground up, or give up, or resort to appealing to authority. Again, its been done on this forum many times. None so blind as those that will not see.

This wouldn’t be necessary to evidence evolution. Stop battering this false analogy.

It isn't a false analogy. Nothing you have said on evolution is at all convincing. Who the hell cares about fossils at different levels of dirt?




I’m claiming that you haven’t presented evidence to me that makes me think such a differentiation is the most likely explanation.

I have explained to you how myth functions. I have explained that it never contains the elements present in the gospels. And I could go on explaining, and you could go on saying your not convinced, until I either write a book on the subject or give up. However, I can do exactly the same thing for evolution.

If you have to do this then the analogy really doesn’t hold. Self-contained evidences should be sufficient. But the extent of which authoritative appeals permeate what you present might make that impossible.

Self-contained evidence doesn't exist for any discipline at this level, not even for evolution. Your example of "fossils" fails completely to meet your level of "self-contained" evidence. Plenty of arguments can be mustered to explain the fossils, and you would have to appeal to other evidence in order to show that they are evidence of evolution.

Why do I even bother trying to highlight the failure of your analogy? Surely rereading your own posts should be sufficient for that. I swear I have never in my entire history of defending evolutionary theory relied upon authority anywhere near the level you have.

Then check out some of the arguments here. I guarentee you that they can employ the same methods you do (always asking for proof of every detail).
This is true. I never disputed this and I’m somewhat glad that you realised I was not.

Then how do you explain this reference?



Tell me this, Oberon, how would a storyteller who told the story of Jesus to a crowd who passed it on as oral tradition be in contradiction to any evidence you have presented? I’m not being facetious when I ask this question.
As I said above, story telling doesn't work like that in oral traditions. It isn't controlled. Furthermore, no body dies for a story. And why would people all of the sudden, in first century palestine, start telling stories about the life and teachings of a man who lived in first century palestine? Can you point to other examples similar to christianity based on myth?
 
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Mister Emu

Emu Extraordinaire
Staff member
Premium Member
You use rock layer depth.
The Flood...

It isn’t necessary to date those fossils in order to evidence evolution.
It most certainly is. Same date = no evolution.

This is why I choose pieces of evidence that can stand on their own.
They don't. They stand on our shared understanding of the scientific process.
 

themadhair

Well-Known Member
What does rock layer depth have to do with it?
…
Who the hell cares about fossils at different levels of dirt?
Deeper = older.

So the creatures died out, but so what? Why does that mean they evolved? And so on.
It would mean that the creatures were being continually wiped out and replaced with ‘newer models’.

Ok, can't it be the case that they were all present six thousand years ago, and then some have died?
Then those creatures’ fossils would all be found in the same layer. Different creatures are found in different layers – a trip to the quarry would show that. The difference between you and me is that the phrase “it is the scholarly consensus” doesn’t form part of my argument every second paragraph.


You are wrong about your "independent evidence." Why do you think Darwin and his sucessors wrote so much to explain and defend their theories? Because nothing about them was "self-contained" or independent. Rather, they built off of previous research and used existing theories in order to argue their own theories.
Cry me a strawman why don’t you. This does not prevent me from using self-contained evidences so the above point, while true, isn’t addressing the difference between “explaining a piece of evidence” and “scholars say so”.

Wrong. Because if you actually knew anything about oral tradition, you would know that both cross-culturally and in similar cultures to the Jesus tradition (in fact, in every oral or primarily oral culture we know of) story-telling is not treated the way the Jesus tradition is.
It being treated differently is proof that they didn’t originate from a single story teller….how exactly???

Rather, emphasis is placed on the ability to retell the story, to innovate, to change things to make it more interesting, and so on. The Jesus tradition falls into "oral history" (which was shortly recorded in writing) not story telling.
It being treated differently is proof that they didn’t originate from a single story teller….how exactly???

Also, you have yet to offer a plausible explanation of christianity. I have pointed out that none of the "godman" cults or cultic traditions based on myth have biographies and references to the life and teaching of their "godman" within a generation or so of the time.
The shorter time span is proof that it didn’t originate from a single story teller….how exactly???

Why did people start believing in it, if not because followers of Jesus spread his message and teachings?
Who knows why people believe in religions? This same argument can be used to justify the existence of any mythical story can it not? I regard it as a false argument for the stories of other religions and do not see sufficient difference here. This isn’t an evidence-based argument but one that is constructed in an attempt at logic, and it fails.

Other cults in this culture never began that way, and in addition the early christians were killed for their beliefs.
So because other cults began in different ways proves Jesus was historical? False polychotomy.

It isn't like Paul or any other missionaries received political power or monetary rewards. He died for his conversion.
This argument could be applied to the founder of any religion. I regard it a false argument in those cases and do not see sufficient reason to do any different here.

However, you are absolutely wrong when you say that your evidence stands on its own.
Cry me a strawman why don’t you. While this is clearly not true of all evidence, there are evidences for which it is true – and this is precisely why I use such evidences rather than writing a treatise peppered with “scholars are agreed upon”.

None of your arguments mean anything on their own.
You tell yourself that. And if you don’t believe it you can always add “scholars agree” to make it more convincing.

As for proving the gospels belong to this genre, that is a large project (which has been done by more than one expert, and I gave you the references). It involves surveying the type of literary devices and methodologies employed by biographers in the ancient world, and then comparing them to the gospels. Short of writing hundreds of pages, how would you like me to do that for you?
Is this an admission that you have not presented sufficient evidence to show this??? And you have ******* gall to lambaste me for not being happy that the evidence you presented was sufficient to show this??? And you also have the ******* gall to lambaste me for finding what you have presented as being an argument from authority just as your comment shows???

Sorry mate, but I am genuinely ******* livid with this. You batter an analogy over which my central disagreement was that explaining evidence, preferably self-contained, is very different than simply presenting “scholars agree”. And now you admit that my disagreement is true because you could not possible lay out all that evidence and have to rely on “scholars agree”.

All the evidence those scholars have accumulated may well be true and sufficient to evidence this claim. That doesn’t make it any less of an appeal to authority though, and given all this to then lambaste me for not finding what you have presented as being sufficient to prove your claims is a total and utter pisstake.

I have to say something, as you have used this word many times now…..At the very least, if you don't want to say "polytomy" you could at least say "polychotomy" rather than "mulitchotomy" and you wouldn't be combining languages.
I didn’t have a phrase to illustrate the concept. You understood what it meant so it succeeded in that regard. O well, I’ll have to use polychotomy then.

Let's say for the sake of argument that they are. What matters then is if one of those genres is ancient biography, because if it is, then the authors consciously recorded history.
You sort have to establish that they are in this genre.

I already said that nothing you said would convince somebody who knew nothing on about the issue.
Not actually true. It is the folks who know nothing that are actually easiest to convince. The folks who know a little and have been fed lies their entire childhood are probably beyond hope.

So what if there are fossils buried at different levels? They all died after god created the world and happen to be buried at different levels.
When a creature dies and gets buried, the next creature to die ends up on top. The lower down the longer ago that creature died. It is a pretty simple idea and doesn’t require “scholars agree” to be presented.

Nothing you have presented about evolution would be convincing to anyone who knew nothing about it and wasn't prepared to accept it.
The bit that narks me is that, in what you have presented, I really do not think my position is unreasonable. Am I wrong here? Or is the phrase “scholarly consensus” in lieu of sufficient evidence make it unreasonable?

I guarentee you I can take the same road you do.
Go for it. I don’t batter “scientists agree” around the place while explaining evidence.

I have explained to you how myth functions. I have explained that it never contains the elements present in the gospels.
And the gospels not being myth, according to the criteria you use, shows them to be historical and accurate and not to have originated from a single storyteller? I’m not saying it isn’t plausible, but it doesn’t seem to be the likely explanation to me given the events they record. Is it unreasonable to see it like this? Particularly given that you have admitted that the evidence demonstrating the gospels were a specific genre has not being presented.

Self-contained evidence doesn't exist for any discipline at this level, not even for evolution. Your example of "fossils" fails completely to meet your level of "self-contained" evidence.
Do explain. The fact that I didn’t and don’t have to refer to other evidence outside those fossils in order to use them for demonstrating evolution occurred would seem to make this self-contained.

Plenty of arguments can be mustered to explain the fossils, and you would have to appeal to other evidence in order to show that they are evidence of evolution.
Have at it.

Then check out some of the arguments here. I guarentee you that they can employ the same methods you do (always asking for proof of every detail).
Asking for proof in every detail is in no way comparable to pointing out the ubiquity of the phrase “scholars agree” being used instead of evidencing the claim at hand.

Then how do you explain this reference?
Doesn’t the fact that Josephus’s writings date to 90-100AD not mean he could be repeating material that was in circulation?

As I said above, story telling doesn't work like that in oral traditions. It isn't controlled.
I said started with a single story teller. Could it not have passed on in oral tradition from here?

Furthermore, no body dies for a story.
And nobody dies for other religions too I’ll bet.

And why would people all of the sudden, in first century palestine, start telling stories about the life and teachings of a man who lived in first century palestine?
Not a clue. Who knows why people believe things?

Can you point to other examples similar to christianity based on myth?
Nope.
 

logician

Well-Known Member
Not true. Q presents Jesus as a teacher. Q was likely earlier than Paul Given that Jesus was a teacher, all teachers have students, or they wouldn't be teachers. Paul doesn't mention disciples because Paul was't writing gospels. he was composing letters to churches. His timeline and purpose do not make mention of the disciples necessary or even desireable.

This statement is bascially ludicrous, like a historian of U.S. history would fail to mention the founding fathers.
 

dogsgod

Well-Known Member
Assume all you want. But when you assume (even for the sake of argument) you have to accept what comes with that assumptions. You can't say "let's assume acts is historical" without then dealing with the blow that does to your central argument.

This is your argument:

1) Acts and the gospels are mythic and can't be read into Paul

Non Sequitur, and a completely false accusation, I stated no such thing. The gospels can't be read into Paul because they are about a Jesus that Paul knows nothing about, and whether that is true or not has no bearing on this matter, it is non sequitur.

Acts is an entirely different matter because Acts is about Paul, and if we are to assume it's historical we have to explain how it is that James, the brother of Jesus met with Paul during Paul's first visit to Jerusalem and not James, the brother of John. Luke/Acts never introduces the reader to James, the brother of Jesus. We've read about Peter, James, and John, the most popular of the "disciples" as the synoptic gospels refer to them, and Paul refers to these three as pillars. Now, how is it that James, the brother of Jesus pops into the picture and how is the reader to know that this James is all of a sudden not the James we have come to expect, bearing in mind that "brother of the Lord" is open to interpretation and that it's just as likely that brother in the Lord could be a title given to the head of a brotherhood of believers, and we all know that James, the brother of John was such a leader? Philippians 1:14 "brothers/brethren in the Lord (adelphôn en kuriô)" is a clear reference to a brotherhood of believers and the almost identical reference to James signifies what is meant. Otherwise, it's a very odd way to refer to a sibling when James, brother of Jesus would have been most appropriate.
 
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dogsgod

Well-Known Member
In a sense. We both believe that Q contains a core of sayings which date back to a historical Jesus preacher. However, I argue (along with everyone else) that much more of the gospels than the small amount that Wells deems historical is historical.


This statement is logically flawed, so I'm not sure I understand what you are asking. The question, as it stands, asks whether Wells makes a judgment concerning Paul's stance in relation to my own. I am going to assume that you meant something different. Wells thinks that Paul thought Jesus was historical. However, he also thinks that Paul barely touches on the historical Jesus, believed that Jesus pre-existed prior his life on earth, that his life on earth was not important, and that Paul fit Jesus into a particular mold. In other words, Wells argues that nothing Paul says about Jesus should be read back to the historical Jesus, but as an aspect of the mythical Christ. I agree with Wells that Paul thought Jesus was historical. I disagree with the rest. Paul's Jesus is not a reconstruction, and although Paul seldom mentions anything worthwhile about the historical Jesus he does do so occasionally.

So in other words, when you harp on the fact that Wells considers Jesus to be historical, you don't care what he means by historical, just as long as he considers Jesus to be historical in some way no matter how remote. I ask because you also harp on the fact that, as you claim, he doesn't agree with me, when the fact is, neither one of us agrees with you. If Paul's risen Christ hearkens back to a human figure that was sacrificed in the year 100BCE, as Wells suggest, I don't have a problem with that because that could explain why Paul knows nothing of a Jesus of Nazareth, nor that he was a teacher, nor that he was a miracle worker, so what do you mean when you state that Wells doesn't agree with me? Do you think he agrees with you? Now do you understand what Wells means when he states that this Q personage can not be connected with the dying and risen Christ of the early epistle writers?
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Non Sequitur, and a completely false accusation, I stated no such thing. The gospels can't be read into Paul because they are about a Jesus that Paul knows nothing about, and whether that is true or not has no bearing on this matter, it is non sequitur.
You stated that acts is a work of second century myth making. I am assumed, therefore, that as such it is useless historically in your view. Am I wrong that by "a work of myth making" you meant it isn't historical?

Acts is an entirely different matter because Acts is about Paul, and if we are to assume it's historical

If we are to assume it is historical, then the whole point is moot because it specifically presents Jesus as historical and his followers as people who knew him during is earthly mission. The only importance of James as Jesus' brother is in establishing a piece of evidence for the historicity of Jesus. That is unnecessary if "we assume acts is historical." Again, if you want to "assume for the sake of argument" the whole point is that after that assumption your entire case doesn't fall apart. But it does.


we have to explain how it is that James, the brother of Jesus met with Paul during Paul's first visit to Jerusalem and not James, the brother of John. Luke/Acts never introduces the reader to James, the brother of Jesus.
Not necessarily true, because it does refer to Jude of James, and Jude is also identified as a brother of Jesus. So it is plausible (though not definite) that this is an indirect reference to Jesus.

We've read about Peter, James, and John, the most popular of the "disciples" as the synoptic gospels refer to them, and Paul refers to these three as pillars. Now, how is it that James, the brother of Jesus pops into the picture and how is the reader to know that this James is all of a sudden not the James we have come to expect,

I've offered to different explanations for this. The first is that Luke's readers would have known James as the lord's brother, because by that time he had enough of a reputation as such.

The second is that even if we assume, for the sake of argument, that the James who is the pillar and who is discussed in acts is a different James, James the brother of the lord still exists as a James who wasn't important enough for acts to mention. In other words, Paul mentions him in passing, but the James he refers to as a "pillar" and who is discussed in acts is someone different.


bearing in mind that "brother of the Lord" is open to interpretation and that it's just as likely that brother in the Lord could be a title given to the head of a brotherhood of believers

Open to interpretation by who? You? Again, this is the standard way of establishing a blood relation in greek. It doesn't resemble any of the "brotherhood" language used elsewhere in the gospels, nor is the title given to any other "leader" (Peter, John, etc). Can you provide any references where this phrase is used in a sense other than to establish a blood relation? Or is it "open to interpretation" simply because it means your completely wrong about Paul.


Philippians 1:14 "brothers/brethren in the Lord (adelphôn en kuriô)" is a clear reference to a brotherhood of believers and the almost identical reference to James signifies what is meant.

Once again, your lack of knowledge of greek makes you particularly unqualified to answer. Unlike ton adelphon tou kuriou/the brother of the lord (which is the was one speaks of blood relations in greek), adelphôn en kuriô is an entirely different construction. It uses the preposition en with the dative to establish a specific type of relationship, quite apart from the standard way of establish actual blood relations (with the genitive, as in the James reference). That phrase is NEVER used to establish literal brothers in greek literature (in fact, it specifies that it isn't literal brothers), but the genitive is always used in this way.


Otherwise, it's a very odd way to refer to a sibling when James, brother of Jesus would have been most appropriate.

Not for Paul, who never refers to Jesus as just Jesus. He is always the lord, or christ, or christ Jesus. In your analysis greek phrasing to establish brotherhood (literal vs. metaphorical) can you provide any evidence to support either of your claims (1. that "brother of the lord" is used in a way other than to imply a blood relation and that 2. when this phrase is used you have to use the name of the person, rather than a title like brother of the lord, brother of the emperor, etc).

So in other words, when you harp on the fact that Wells considers Jesus to be historical, you don't care what he means by historical, just as long as he considers Jesus to be historical in some way no matter how remote.

I don't care what he means or thinks at all. He is a professor of German studies, and his work in the field of Jesus research has been almost entirely ignored by those who study in the field. Notable exceptions are reviews such as the devastating critique by J. Dunn, in which he ripped Wells' earlier work to pieces, forcing him to back off his Jesus is a complete myth hypothesis.

I ask because you also harp on the fact that, as you claim, he doesn't agree with me, when the fact is, neither one of us agrees with you.

You use him as a source. I don't

Also, I don't agree with many experts in this field on many points. On many issues there is no consensus, and on almost all of them (even something as accepted as Q) there are notable dissenters. Wells is highly critical, believing that all we can establish historically is that Jesus was some sort of preacher in first century palestine, and the early parts of Q are authentic recordings of his teachings. The rest is all spurious. None of the experts are quite as critical as Wells, but there are a number who treat the gospels more critically than I do (e.g. Crossan and Mack).

However, neither this debate nor our others have been concerned with how much we can know about the historical Jesus, but about whether he is a myth. Wells has backed of this position, and is now arguing that he was historical, but the sources about him are almost entirely worthless historically (apart from the early layers of Q).

If Paul's risen Christ hearkens back to a human figure that was sacrificed in the year 100BCE, as Wells suggest, I don't have a problem with that because that could explain why Paul knows nothing of a Jesus of Nazareth, nor that he was a teacher, nor that he was a miracle worker, so what do you mean when you state that Wells doesn't agree with me? Do you think he agrees with you? Now do you understand what Wells means when he states that this Q personage can not be connected with the dying and risen Christ of the early epistle writers?

"A final argument against the nonexistence hypothesis comes from Wells himself. In his most recent book, The Jesus Myth, Wells has moved away from this hypothesis. He now accepts that there is some historical basis for the existence of Jesus, derived from the lost early 'gospel' 'Q' (the hypothetical source used by Matthew and Luke). Wells believes that it is early and reliable enough to show that Jesus probably did exist, although this Jesus was not the Christ that the later canonical Gospels portray. It remains to be seen what impact Wells's about-face will have on debate over the nonexistence hypothesis in popular circles.", Van Voorst, Robert E, "NonExistence Hypothesis," in Houlden, James Leslie (editor), Jesus in History, Thought, and Culture: An Encyclopedia, page 660 (Santa Barbara 2003) "

You can check this reference out yourself at google books, where you can see the page in question.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
This statement is bascially ludicrous, like a historian of U.S. history would fail to mention the founding fathers.
Actually, your statement is the ludicrous one. Paul wasn't writing history, he was writing letters. His purpose was not to tell the story of Jesus, but to resolve church conflicts. The people he was writing to already knew the story.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
Deeper = older.[/QUOTE

Why? Why can't they just be deeper?

It would mean that the creatures were being continually wiped out and replaced with ‘newer models’.

Why does that follow? Why can't they all have been present 6000 years ago, but some died, others died later, and some never?

Then those creatures’ fossils would all be found in the same layer. Different creatures are found in different layers – a trip to the quarry would show that.
So they are at different levels. How does that prove anything?

The difference between you and me is that the phrase “it is the scholarly consensus” doesn’t form part of my argument every second paragraph.

Nor have you demonstrated any sort of proof, unless one takes for granted an enormous amount of research demonstrating that, for example, different rock depths are indicative of different ages. You just assume that. In the same way, I can ask you to assume the enormous amount of research demonstrating the genre of the gospels, the references to the historical Jesus by Paul as early proof, etc.

And, just like you, I can look to your arguments and continue to say that they don't prove anything, because you are relying on information that has been established by authorities. For example "older=deeper" is not self-contained proof of evolution, even if I accepted it as true (which, if I am you, I don't).

Cry me a strawman why don’t you. This does not prevent me from using self-contained evidences so the above point, while true, isn’t addressing the difference between “explaining a piece of evidence” and “scholars say so”.

It isn't a strawman, because your evidence so far has not been self contained. "older=deeper" is just a statement that has to be proved. You haven't done that. None of your arguments for evolution have been self-contained. They are all built on an enormous amount of scientific (scholarly) research.

You tell yourself that. And if you don’t believe it you can always add “scholars agree” to make it more convincing.

You really think "older=deeper" is self contained and doesn't require further proof? Are actually suggesting that this was taken as true by scientists and didn't have to be proved?

It being treated differently is proof that they didn’t originate from a single story teller….how exactly???

1) Analysis of the gospels reveals that say, Mark, contains a number of independent passages which have been strung together and put in (an awkward overall narrative). The sayings and parables are awkwardly juxtiposed, and Mark is constantly saying things like "suddenly this happened" or "then Jesus said this." Stories never look like this. They flow far better, because an overall narrative is already present, and details are manipulated by the story teller.

2) The "single" story teller doesn't explain why so many traditions exist independently of each other.

3) Not even in ancient history (i.e. prior to science and rationalism) did people all the sudden accept a "story" as true that they were prepared to die for.

4) Oral cultures don't take pains to remember "stories." Only history is transmitted with reliability.



Who knows why people believe in religions? This same argument can be used to justify the existence of any mythical story can it not?

Wrong. And that is exactly my point. The other myths are located long ago for a reason. If they were nailed down to a recent time, people can actually go and check it out. And they did (like Paul going up to Jerusalem to learn the tradition from Peter, or Papias learning what the eyewitnesses to Jesus were saying).
I regard it as a false argument for the stories of other religions and do not see sufficient difference here. This isn’t an evidence-based argument but one that is constructed in an attempt at logic, and it fails.

That is because either you haven't studied religions or you aren't to good with logic.

So because other cults began in different ways proves Jesus was historical? False polychotomy.

If no other cult resembles the creation of the Jesus tradition, but they all resemble each other, and the myths of those cults are never treated nor resemble the Jesus tradition, but they are all similar, that doesn't suggest that the Jesus tradition is not one of those?


This argument could be applied to the founder of any religion. I regard it a false argument in those cases and do not see sufficient reason to do any different here.

Paul didn't found the religion. It existed prior to him, as he makes clear in his letters. He learned about the Jesus tradition from Jesus' followers, as he makes clear. He persecuted the earliest church, as he makes clear. He was a contemporary of Jesus. He converts because of a "story-teller" and then dies for it. When has that happened in other religions? People followed Muhammed because he was historical. The qumran community followed the "teacher of righteousness." The pythagoreans had their founder. And so on.
Cry me a strawman why don’t you. While this is clearly not true of all evidence, there are evidences for which it is true – and this is precisely why I use such evidences rather than writing a treatise peppered with “scholars are agreed upon”.

Again, you haven't used any such evidence. All of your evidence depends on my accepting research into your proofs ("older=deeper"). You don't say "scientists agree on this" but you need that argument, or you need to go further and prove to me that "older=deeper."
You tell yourself that. And if you don’t believe it you can always add “scholars agree” to make it more convincing.

Is this an admission that you have not presented sufficient evidence to show this??? And you have ******* gall to lambaste me for not being happy that the evidence you presented was sufficient to show this???

You have the ****** gall to lambaste me for not providing you with sufficient truth, but then say "older=deeper" and act like that argument is more self-contained argument for evolution (or that it is an arguement at all, and not just a statement you have yet to prove) than "the gospels don't resemble stories, nor are the treated like stories, but resemble a historical genre"!?

Yes. Your arguments for evolution have thus far (as Mister Emu has also pointed out) absolutely relied on authority. T

Sorry mate, but I am genuinely ******* livid with this. You batter an analogy over which my central disagreement was that explaining evidence, preferably self-contained, is very different than simply presenting “scholars agree”. And now you admit that my disagreement is true because you could not possible lay out all that evidence and have to rely on “scholars agree”.

So far, neither can you. Every bit of evidence you have referred to depends on arguments from authority, or on you giving more proof. And if I were to follow your path (every little detail has to be proven rather than giving references to scholarship, which is standard in any field), then we could go on until you have to write a book.


.
 
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Oberon

Well-Known Member
You sort have to establish that they are in this genre.

I can do that either by writing an great deal of scholarship (which has been done), or I can do what you do and make a statement like "older=deeper" and expect you to take that as "self-contained"

Not actually true. It is the folks who know nothing that are actually easiest to convince. The folks who know a little and have been fed lies their entire childhood are probably beyond hope.
This is only true if they aren't opposed or skeptical to the idea in the first place.


When a creature dies and gets buried, the next creature to die ends up on top. The lower down the longer ago that creature died. It is a pretty simple idea and doesn’t require “scholars agree” to be presented.

Or, as Mister Emu said, it is a result of the flood. Or possibly the constant shifting of the earth, erosion, or something else caused different levels. How do we know that didn't happen?

And if we accept what you say as true, how does that prove evolution, or even provide evidence for it? All the creatures were created 6000 years ago, but some died earlier than others. So what?


The bit that narks me is that, in what you have presented, I really do not think my position is unreasonable. Am I wrong here? Or is the phrase “scholarly consensus” in lieu of sufficient evidence make it unreasonable?

You are wrong. Like you, I have made some statements on gospel genres compared to other genres, on oral tradition, on Paul being a contemporary, on how myth and story-telling both do not resemble the gospels, on the fact that we have numerous independent lines of evidence for Jesus, etc. You accept none of these as true with out proving each of them in detail.

Using the same method, you can bring out proof after proof of evolution, like "older=deeper" (which, if I accept it is a true, only proves that some creatures died early, and doesn't prove evolution at all), and I can continually ask you to provide evidence that your statements are correct, until you too have written a book length dissertation building all the evidence from the ground up.

Go for it. I don’t batter “scientists agree” around the place while explaining evidence.

I am. So far, the only evidence you have possibly provided (which I can provide alternative explanations for, like erosion, Noah's flood, the shifting of the earth from volcanoes or earthquakes, etc) is that some creatures died early. So what?

And the gospels not being myth, according to the criteria you use, shows them to be historical and accurate and not to have originated from a single storyteller? I’m not saying it isn’t plausible, but it doesn’t seem to be the likely explanation to me given the events they record. Is it unreasonable to see it like this? Particularly given that you have admitted that the evidence demonstrating the gospels were a specific genre has not being presented.

Again, stories never resemble the gospels, nor do stories which are near the time of the cult form the basis for a cult. For example, if Jesus wasn't historical, why does Paul refer to his teachings, or why did he convert at all, when he could have just asked around to see if people remembered Jesus?

Let's examine your "story-teller" hypothesis and see if it best fits the evidence (after all, the study of history is all about which explanation fits the evidence the best).

According to this hypothesis, a story-teller comes up with a story about a godman Jesus who lives, and more importantly conducts his ministry, in the first half of the first century. We know this because in the story Jesus interacts with historical figures attested to in other sources (like John the Baptist, the high priest Caiaphas, Pilate, etc). The story-teller has Jesus come from Nazareth live and work (by work I mean his ministry) in Galilee and Jerusalem. He also dies in Jerusalem.

As the story-teller couldn't have composed the story prior to the historical figures in the story (in other words, he put historical figures like Pilate and John the Baptist in the story, so he must have composed it after John died and at the earliest while Pilate was procurator). So at the earliest the story was composed around the 30s CE. Twenty or so years later, we have Paul. Paul tells us that he had converted many years prior to his writings, and at the latest he was converted only a few years (certainly less than ten) after the story was composed. Yet he also says prior to his conversion, he persecuted the church, which means there had to have already been a fair number of followers, enough so that a zealous Jew like Paul would be worried about their corruption of Judaism. Which means that almost as soon as this story was composed, it is believed in by people to be true. More importantly, it is believed by people to be true who are living in the place where parts of it take place (e.g. Jerusalem). We also know that these followers were persecuted almost from the beginning, not just by pagans but by Jews (like Paul). Now, why would a fairly large group of people, who were living in the location in which the story is set, shortly after it takes place (as in a few years), believe it to be true and even die for it? They were around when it took place, and they were where it took place. So they would have known if Jesus was actually never around and that this was only a story (its not like the population of these places is that large, especially Nazareth), yet they believed anyway.

Thats your hypothesis.

Mine involves a man who taught, had followers, and performed "wonders" which people thought were miracles, and created enough of a commotion and impact that his followers carried on his teachings and stories about him, and even believed he rose from the dead. They transformed their former teacher/prophet/wonder-worker into a messiah and son of god.

Do explain. The fact that I didn’t and don’t have to refer to other evidence outside those fossils in order to use them for demonstrating evolution occurred would seem to make this self-contained.

Because they saying that fossils exist, even if we accept that some are older than others, doesn't provide evidence against they hypothesis that all creatures weren't created 6000 years ago and some have died before others.


Asking for proof in every detail is in no way comparable to pointing out the ubiquity of the phrase “scholars agree” being used instead of evidencing the claim at hand.

Yes it is. Because in the end, if I need further proof for every statement you make, you either have to write a book, give up, or reference scholarship.

Doesn’t the fact that Josephus’s writings date to 90-100AD not mean he could be repeating material that was in circulation?

Not really, because he was alive while James was. If he knew him as the brother of Jesus, than Jesus wasn't a story.

You can't just look at the date of composition. Josephus was born around the time that Jesus died. In other words, he lived while eyewitnesses to Jesus were alive. Clearly, not every one accepted Jesus as Christ, yet Josephus accepts him as historical. Why? Because no one was going around saying that the stories being told weren't based on a person. If Jesus existed only in story, than why would Josephus the historian not have known people who contradicted that Jesus ever lived, when such people were still around during his life?

We have no evidence of anyone contradicting Jesus' historicity in ancient times, even its opponents (Tacitus, Celsus, etc.) Josephus is the earliest, and he was alive while Jesus' family was still alive, yet he speaks of Jesus as historical.
I said started with a single story teller. Could it not have passed on in oral tradition from here?

If it started as a story, then it would resemble a story (a over all narrative with the details being altered, rather than an artificial overall narrative, with the details more preserved)

And nobody dies for other religions too I’ll bet.

Later on they do. But the earliest christians could have checked out the details. They were around prior to Paul, and the story locates Jesus in a time in which Paul was still alive. You are suggesting that the earliest christians accepted this story as genuine although they were contemporary to it, and then were persecuted and killed for it.
 
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