You can argue with them over how likely it is their miracles were, but you must agree that people of faith invent miracles all the time and attribute them to holy figures. So there is no reason to assume that the Christian ones reported in NT scripture were not similarly invented.
Not even close, cop :no:
The Romans usually did not allow those executed for treason to be released to anyone.
Released to anyone like who? Either way, the body had to be taken down and someone had to retrieve it, right? Whether to the Roman authorities or otherwise.
All I said was that the location of such a tomb, given the importance of the resurrection story, would have been something that one would expect Christians to have preserved.
Maybe, maybe not. That is highly subjective. Now don't get me wrong, I am not saying that I can't see why someone would preserve it, under those circumstances, but it is not a shock to me as to why it wasn't preserved.
Good. You accept that people made up such "gospels" and falsely associated them with the names of important figures.
That may be true, but all cases are not equal. And I don't see how Mark, and Luke were considered "important figures", especially not more important than Peter or maybe Mary.
Why? Because these were not objective observers. So why should it surprise you that there aren't records of "bickering about who wrote the Gospels"? For such records to exist, they would have needed to be preserved through the filter of the centuries-old copying process.
Paul was an objective observer, and his message in 1Corin 15:3-7 corroborates the most important message in all the Gospels, and that was that Jesus lived, died, was buried, and raised on the third and appeared to the disciples and even Paul himself. Paul received this message and wrote about it before the Gospels were even made, yet the Gospels corroborate this message?? Hmmm.
There is an interesting trend here. Most scholars take Mark to be the earliest Gospel, and John the latest. The trend is for the story to get more and more elaborate in details as the record gets further from the time of the original events. In other words, there is an apparent trend of embellishment, with later authors seeking to "improve" and "refine" the message of earlier accounts.
Well I don't know about getting "more and more elaborate in details". If Matthew borrowed from Mark, and if he wanted to give his own independent account, we should expect parallels from Mark, and also material that Mark didn't cover.
Their consistency is easily attributed to the desire of the orthodox movement (and Irenaeus's seminal role in it) to promote a consistent Christian doctrine. That is why they cherry-picked those four gospels from the myriad of other choices.
That still doesn't account for the letters of Paul, and we have good reasons to believe that the Gospel of Thomas was written well after the first century AD, even after the Gospel of John.
How would you know that? Is it impossible to believe that his visions were caused by mental illness? Or that they were misinterpreted dreams?
No, because even James, brother of Jesus, became converted after the appearances...so we have two former skeptics that were converted because of the appearances. So I guess James would have had a mental illness or a misinterpreted dream as well?
Or that he made stuff up to impress people with his divine revelations? There are all kinds of possibilities that do not require belief in divine revelation, yet you choose to focus on just one possibility.
Impress people with what? The man went from a life of persecuting the early church, having a high position in the Jewish community...to a life of being beaten, imprisoned, and possibly martyred. I am not sure how that would impress people.
He was certainly silent on the details of that "resurrection".
He said that Jesus resurrected and appeared to more than 500 people? How is that silent on the Resurrection?
Of course, this would not have seemed possible to those who rejected docetism as heresy, so how difficult would it have been for them to believe that any records to the contrary were considered apocryphal? If what you see contradicts your most cherished beliefs, how do you handle it? Not everyone sees it as a refutation of faith.
It would be nice to have scriptural evidence to support either Paul's or Peter's belief in docetism. Peter gave no indication of this belief in the book of Acts, so where is it coming from? From uninspired heathens.
Scholars of today have much better tools to explore and analyze data. The people who left records back then were neither scholars by current standards nor in possession of the tools that we have today. Scholars today work on the information that is available to them, not the say-so of ancient writers, who were known not to be consistently reliable.
So what are these magical "tools" that the scholars of today have that people back then didn't have. I will trust the words of those that are living 100 years after the fact, than the words of people that are living 2,000 years after the fact. It is a double standard, actually. The Gospels are often critisized for allegedly having been written so many years after Jesus' death...which is like a newsflash compared to those living today writing books and popular journals regarding events that happened 2,000 years after the fact, yet no one says anything about this. Swept under the rug. But it is so hard to believe that at least two Gospels were written by FRIENDS of the disciples? Critics can't even grant that???? Not the disciples, but FRIENDS of the disciples....can't even get that much?? It is a double standard, and quite pathetic, in my opinion.
Er, not exactly. Nero died in 68.
And the fire which lead to the persecution of early Christians occurred in 64.
Anyway, the passages in Josephus that refer to Christ are quite controversial, because there is some reason to believe that some, or all, of them were forged by Christian scribes. Again, at best, they only attest to the existence of Christians, not the veracity of their doctrine.
Yeah, the passages in Josephus were controversial, at one point in time. But now, it is pretty much known and accepted that part of the passage was interpolated. But if you omit the obvious interpolations, you still have a historical Jesus, and Christians can live with that. And if you omit the interpolation, you don't have a doctrine of Christ, you are left with the historicity of a man named Jesus who is the central figure in the religion of Christianity. So again, Christians can live with that.
First, those writers did absolutely nothing to endorse Christian doctrine.
Oh, I agree. But they do endorse the fact that Jesus lived in the first century AD, which is more than most of you people (and skeptics in general) would like to admit.
They may or may not have believed that Christ was a real person, but they had no way of knowing.
Both said that he was put to death by Pilate, cop. And we know that Pilate was a real person. So if they didn't believe that Christ was a real person or had no way of knowing, why would they claim that Pilate put him to death. Tacitus was certainly in a position to know about the political stuff that was going on in the past.
Tacitus certainly did not cite any Roman records backing up the assumption.
So what? The fire that Tacitus mentions is historical, and since Nero blamed the Christians, Tacitus briefly mentioned Christ, since he was the ultimate origin of these group of people and their beliefs. It is all in context, cop.
Moreover, it is entirely possible that the few words--passing references in Tacitus--were inserted by Christian scribes, since we no longer have the autographs.
Oh please. The man mentions Christ ONE time, very briefly, without mentioning any doctrinely related stuff about him, and you can't even give him that much??? My goodness man. Going through great leaps and bounds here, aren't you?
It is quite possible that, given the claims of Christians about the historical execution, Romans simply accepted the claim uncritically that Christ had really existed. How would they know otherwise?
No because Paul was alive during that time and in that region, and he also mentions James, brother of Jesus...and if Jesus had a brother, he must of existed.
False. All you have is acceptance of the claims that Christians existed and that their claims of a historical Jesus might be true. This is not evidence of historicity, but of belief in historicity. At best.
:no: There are only certain parts of it that historians believe are interpolated. If you take out the interpolations, which are quite obvious, actually..you will get a historical Jesus. Even the most radical skeptics of Christianity admit that Jesus is a historical figure in history..the man existed in history...even Bart Erhman, the man you cited above admits that Jesus existed in history.
How? Easy. You are begging the question.
No I am not...I said "if". I didn't say "since".