Mountain_Climber
Active Member
It is the exact same word for god at John 20:28 as at John 10:34 except that at John 10:34 it is inflected as plural.
The presence of a definite article does not always have to mean it is the Almighty God who is being referred to, for if the lessor god is present and being spoken to the definite article would be needed to show that the one speaking to that lessor god was addressing that one as the lessor god rather than just speaking generally of a lessor god.
There is therefore no conclusive way of being sure that Doubting Thomas was even thinking of the Almighty God when he made his declaration.
2 Corinthians 4:4 proves that there is no conclusive way of being sure in that it is the same exact word for god as at John 20:28 and is preceded by the definite article just as is John 20:28.
2 Corinthians 4:4 “In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.”
What Doubting Thomas more precisely had said was, “the lord of me and the god of me.”
The kings over Israel were often referred to as gods appointed over the people. But Jesus was especially an appointed god as the prophet who was promised like unto Moses. (Acts 3:22, 26)
Exodus 7:1 “And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.”
Having for many years now considered all of the arguments, I say that is the best evidence for what Doubting Thomas meant.
Did Jesus manifest the Father to us? Yes, but it was the Father he manifested and therefore the explanation that says Doubting Thomas meant Jesus was the Father falls short. Only the father is the God, as in the One True God.
To manifest merely means, “to make known.” Jesus manifested many things to us, all of which helped us to know the Father better. Do a word search in the New Testament of that word, “manifest”, and ponder this point.
The presence of a definite article does not always have to mean it is the Almighty God who is being referred to, for if the lessor god is present and being spoken to the definite article would be needed to show that the one speaking to that lessor god was addressing that one as the lessor god rather than just speaking generally of a lessor god.
There is therefore no conclusive way of being sure that Doubting Thomas was even thinking of the Almighty God when he made his declaration.
2 Corinthians 4:4 proves that there is no conclusive way of being sure in that it is the same exact word for god as at John 20:28 and is preceded by the definite article just as is John 20:28.
2 Corinthians 4:4 “In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.”
What Doubting Thomas more precisely had said was, “the lord of me and the god of me.”
The kings over Israel were often referred to as gods appointed over the people. But Jesus was especially an appointed god as the prophet who was promised like unto Moses. (Acts 3:22, 26)
Exodus 7:1 “And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.”
Having for many years now considered all of the arguments, I say that is the best evidence for what Doubting Thomas meant.
Did Jesus manifest the Father to us? Yes, but it was the Father he manifested and therefore the explanation that says Doubting Thomas meant Jesus was the Father falls short. Only the father is the God, as in the One True God.
To manifest merely means, “to make known.” Jesus manifested many things to us, all of which helped us to know the Father better. Do a word search in the New Testament of that word, “manifest”, and ponder this point.
