Poisonshady313
Well-Known Member
so, when his law actively commands him to kill homosexuals, how exactly does he use this as a guide? either he follows his command, and obeys god, or he does not follow ,disobeys god and disregards his command. there is no guideline or hint taking here. its just like being pregnant, either you are, or you are not. no kinda, sorta maybes...
The procedure for doing this is complicated...
You'd have to have two legitimate witnesses witnessing this homosexual act, and they'd have to tell him that what he is doing is against the law, citing the specific line from the text... and they'd have to acknowledge that they understand what they are doing is contrary to the text, but they are going to go ahead and keep doing it anyway... and the witnesses would have to be present to see this continuation of the act... before it can even be brought to court.
And even then, there are all kinds of procedures by which the judges try to give the accused the benefit of the doubt.
If you think the verse in Leviticus is a simple license to kill gay people for anyone who is able to read it, you are sorely mistaken.
And, of course, without a the Temple, there can be no sanhedrin fit to try capital cases... which would mean it would be a sin to kill homosexuals.
You make the mistake of believing that you can wrap your mind around the workings of the law from a superficial reading of the text. It's not nearly as simple... and not nearly as cruel or heartless, as you make it out to be.
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