Ok, so when the research department to the Universal House of Justice writes,
"A careful study of the changes that were made clearly shows that the verses of the Qur’án that were not quoted exactly
in the first edition of the Íqán were brought into exact conformity in the new edition. As Mr. Buck is undoubtedly aware, when Bahá’u’lláh quotes His own Writings in a Tablet, He not infrequently quotes them in a form that, while conveying the essential meaning of the original, is not in exactly the same words. It would seem that in revealing the Kitáb-i Íqán, He followed the same practice in relation to passages He quoted from the Qur’án. The fact that He Himself had them later changed to be in accordance with the accepted text of the Qur’án makes it clear that He was fully aware of the matter and, moreover, that the change in wording had no effect on the purport of His argument.
Here is positive confirmation by Bahá’í authorities of an original version of the Íqán and “a new revised version.”
Source:
Symbol and Secret page 28 to 29
Do you think they are lying about there being "changes" made to the Kitab-i-Iqan?
Because it is in that exact context that they refer to "stylistic and grammatical changes", what would be the relevance of their answer to the question if the Kitab-i-Iqan which Najafi is critiqing had none of those?
Ok, the document explains it:
During His lifetime, Bahá’u’lláh Himself reviewed the book and indicated necessary changes so that, subsequently, a new, revised version of the book became available. In several Tablets of Bahá’u’lláh, indications are found that during 1305-1306 A.H. (1887– 1889 A.D.), Bahá’u’lláh undertook the task of revising the book particularly in order to bring the Qur’ánic quotations in line with the common standard. A sample of such a
Tablet is published in the Asráru’l-Áthár. A provisional translation of a portion of this
Tablet follows:
copy of a correct Íqán was given to Jináb-i-‘Alí Akbar, My Glory be upon him.
Existing copies should be brought into conformity with this copy, or new transcriptions made from it. The latter is better and more appropriate. ([Bahá’u’lláh, cited in] Fáḍil Mázandarání, Asráru’l-Áthár [Ṭihrán: Bahá’í Publishing Trust, 124 B.E.] Vol. 1, p. 278.)
A careful study of the changes that were made clearly shows that the verses of the Qur’án that were not quoted exactly in the first edition of the Íqán were brought into exact conformity in the new edition. ....
So, as they explained, the changes Baha'u'llah made, was to bring Quranic references to exact conformity of the Quran.
Now, in this document, they quote from Aqdas that:
“Many Tablets were revealed and dispatched in their original form without being checked and reviewed. Consequently, as bidden, they were again read out in the Holy Presence, and brought into conformity with the grammatical conventions of the people in order to forestall the cavils of the opponents of the Cause.”
The Research department quoted this passage from Aqdas to explain the reason why Baha'u'llah revised Iqan. But my take is, this passage in Aqdas is not related to Iqan. It caused confusion here, giving the impression that, there were grammatical conversations in Ighan, whereas, the only changes that Baha'u'llah did in Iqan, were to exactly quote as Quran.
Now, what is wrong with this?
