serp777
Well-Known Member
You're saying that since we're fallible, that we can't come up with a good approximation of a nearly (if not absolutely) perfect code. So because of that, we fallible beings have to admit that genocide, slavery, misogyny, pedophilia etc. can be moral under majority rule. It's between equal rights for all individuals, or adhere to the "moral" double standard imposed by the biggest group or alliance.
You're right, there is no proof, because we haven't polled the Earth's population to see who desires good order, and more importantly, to see who doesn't--and why. After 1,000,000 years, I think we can come up with a moral code which satisfies the 97% who want good order (mine is damn near perfect). The only alternative is to give free reign to subjective morality and thus to despotism and/or anarchy--which is where the Establishment looks like it's taking us as fast as they can now.
You're saying that since we're fallible, that we can't come up with a good approximation of a nearly (if not absolutely) perfect code. So because of that, we fallible beings have to admit that genocide, slavery, misogyny, pedophilia etc. can be moral under majority rule. It's between equal rights for all individuals, or adhere to the "moral" double standard imposed by the biggest group or alliance.
Many of those things were not considered immoral in humanity's ancient past. This is just moral relativism. I thought my analogy with science would make things clear. A good approximation of morality isn't the same thing as objective morality for the same reason that a scientific theory isn't the same thing with empirical certainty. ALso its realistic to admit that majority rule could implement all of those things. If the Nazis had won WW2 and you were a german citizen, you'd probably be saying the same thing here about us fallible beings having to admit that not committing genocide against the Jews can be moral under majority rule. The point is that you're assuming you have moral superiority when I haven't seen you demonstrate at all any of your moral assumptions as being objectively moral. In my opinion I agree with you, but i simply don't think i have the authority to claim moral superiority with such limited knowledge. Only someone with infinite knowledge could make objective claims on morality.
You're right, there is no proof, because we haven't polled the Earth's population to see who desires good order, and more importantly, to see who doesn't--and why. After 1,000,000 years, I think we can come up with a moral code which satisfies the 97% who want good order (mine is damn near perfect).
What evidence do you have that its near perfect? How do you know perfect is even attainable? It may be that there will always be moral tradeoffs and certain problems that simply cannot be resolved in morality. And also how is an argument from popularity a justification for a certain morality? Even if 100% of the population agreed with your code that wouldn't make it objectively right. There might be an alien civilization with an entirely different, but equally functional code of morality. And if you polled all the humans that ever live I can guarantee you most of them would think your code was awful and blasphemous. You're assuming that humans today are capable of determining moral absolutes. How are you certain that we have superior morals to the point where we can claim we have the authority to declare objective morals?