So now you're saying that this sentence is not true: "Rape is evil."
False. I have not stated any invalid argument anywhere (ever) in which a premise is merely repeated as the conclusion.
Well, you have asserted to rape is "evil," then you asserted that such propositions are not true. At least I am avoiding the logical inconsistency of asserting that I believe something that I know to be false.
In the argument I stated, I did not deduce that conclusion ("rape of a 4-year-old child is immoral") from the premise that moral propositions are true or false. The conclusion is deduced from the conditions that make up the middle term ("acts that harm a person, are perpetrated without that person's consent and are perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure"), which are consistent with the definition of "immoral".
P1: All human acts that harm a person, are perpetrated without that person's consent and are perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure are immoral.
P2: Rape of a 4-year-old child is a human act that harms the child, is perpetrated without that child's consent and is perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure.
C: Therefore, rape of a 4-year-old child is immoral.
That is one of the objective criteria included in the middle term of my argument, which deduces that rape of a 4-year-old is immoral. Those criteria are consistent with the definition of "immoral," and are how we can determine that an act is objectively immoral.
Unless you can find that one of the premises of my valid is not true, then the proposition that is the conclusion is a true proposition. Right?
So now you're saying that this sentence is not true: "Rape is evil."
Its not objectively true. Like I said, its consistent with my moral framework, which of course is based on an opinion.
Well, you have asserted to rape is "evil," then you asserted that such propositions are not true. At least I am avoiding the logical inconsistency of asserting that I believe something that I know to be false.
You're once again assuming that moral propositions can be either true or false. Its still begging the question. Saying its evil is consistent with my moral framework, opinions, and empathy but that doesn't mean I have the authority to dictate true or false moral propositions. Saying its evil doesn't mean I think its true or false; i simply don't put "in my opinion" every time, but I definitely didn't say anything with certainty.
So i don't make any fact claims of my morality, I merely make it known what my moral opinions are. There is no logical inconsistency here because I don't rely on objective/factual morals. I can make claims about morality without accepting true or false moral propositions.
In the argument I stated, I did not deduce that conclusion ("rape of a 4-year-old child is immoral") from the premise that moral propositions are true or false. The conclusion is deduced from the conditions that make up the middle term ("acts that harm a person, are perpetrated without that person's consent and are perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure"), which are consistent with the definition of "immoral".
Actually you are basing it on the premise that moral propositions are true or false. You're saying its objectively true that "acts that harm a person, are perpetrated without that person's consent and are perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure" are in fact immoral. This is a moral assumption. You don't have any factual or logical reason to conclude that this moral assumption is itself objectively moral. Its like trying to show that its objectively wrong to harm. You can't do it; its a matter of opinion. On the other hand, if you say that this moral assumption isn't objectively true, then its just a matter of opinion and the rest of your morality then is also just a matter of opinion. So logically you can't win here. In order to show that something is objectively moral it must rely on objectively moral assumptions.
Moreover, the definition of immoral is not that. It simply means: "not conforming to accepted standards of morality." I just grabbed the first definition of google but you can't define immoral and then use that to justify that moral propositions are true because that's how you've defined the meaning of immoral. I should make a note that there are many definitions of "immoral" that depend on philosophies, religions, culture, and etc. Picking a definition we can agree on will be quite challenging.
P1: All human acts that harm a person, are perpetrated without that person's consent and are perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure are immoral.
P2: Rape of a 4-year-old child is a human act that harms the child, is perpetrated without that child's consent and is perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure.
C: Therefore, rape of a 4-year-old child is immoral.
P1 assumed human acts that harm are inherently immoral. I see no evidence or reason this should be objectively true. I also see no objective reason why a perpetrator's pleasure takes a lower moral place than a person's consent. What objective reason is there that consent is inherently moral? P1 is essentially just moral assumptions based on 21st century society and how our culture has developed. We believe these things but an alien species might not. P2 relies on moral assumptions for the same reason.