I have a question, mainly for the theistic and religious members of the forum. Atheists often have a widely held assumption that faith is blind and use this to discredit religious belief as incompatable with knowledge (particularly when obtained by rationalist or scientific methods).
However, I am interested to know if this is infact a convenient myth. Very often atheists will flat out ignore deism and natural theology as rational sources for knowledge of gods existence in debates. Instead they create a (historically) artificial divide between religion and reason because they hold it is impossible for these to be relevant to discussions of religious "faith" as a result of the way they have defined the term.
In the case of literalist readings of scripture such as the bible or the Quran, it is thought of as a "blind" act of faith to accept these texts as the word of God. Is this unfair and do you have a sufficient basis to claim for yourself rational grounds to accept these texts as the work of a deity? I am not so much interested in whether it fits conventional definitions or methods of acquiring knowledge, but rather than you regard it as knowledge as a basis for your own beliefs. ( if you can think of an equivalent outside of Judaism, Christianity and Islam you are welcome to share).
more specifically, would you consider revelation or mysticism as paths to knowledge or would you regard them as non-rational basis for blind faith?
What I really want to know is if you apply a different standard or definition of knowledge as a rational basis for your beliefs than the ones which are used to criticise them.
Long answers are welcome btw, as this will probably help cross the theist-atheist divide and understand each other.
However, I am interested to know if this is infact a convenient myth. Very often atheists will flat out ignore deism and natural theology as rational sources for knowledge of gods existence in debates. Instead they create a (historically) artificial divide between religion and reason because they hold it is impossible for these to be relevant to discussions of religious "faith" as a result of the way they have defined the term.
In the case of literalist readings of scripture such as the bible or the Quran, it is thought of as a "blind" act of faith to accept these texts as the word of God. Is this unfair and do you have a sufficient basis to claim for yourself rational grounds to accept these texts as the work of a deity? I am not so much interested in whether it fits conventional definitions or methods of acquiring knowledge, but rather than you regard it as knowledge as a basis for your own beliefs. ( if you can think of an equivalent outside of Judaism, Christianity and Islam you are welcome to share).
more specifically, would you consider revelation or mysticism as paths to knowledge or would you regard them as non-rational basis for blind faith?
What I really want to know is if you apply a different standard or definition of knowledge as a rational basis for your beliefs than the ones which are used to criticise them.
Long answers are welcome btw, as this will probably help cross the theist-atheist divide and understand each other.