I am replying to this post a second time because of a discovery of mine. The translation of that verse changed in many Bibles have Roe v Wade. It was retranslated to make it appear to refer to the fetus when in the original it referred to the woman. I have seen articles on that but cannot find them again right now. But I did find this article:
https://www.thelancet.com/journals/lancet/article/PIIS0140-6736(05)71025-4/fulltext
In it the change is explained. Many Old Testament translations were based upon the Septuagint. If you are not familiar with that it is a Greek translation of the Old Testament. And like many translations some errors slip through, even though the writers appear to have tried to avoid them. Luckily the original is still available so that it is possible to interpret it properly:
"Differences about legal status, and later problems, probably derive from a mistranslation anyway. In
Exodus, the Hebrew text reads: “If a man strives and wounds a pregnant woman so that her fruit be expelled, but no harm befall her, then he shall be fined as her husband shall assess, and the matter placed before the judges. But if harm befall her, then you shall give life for life.” Human life is sacred, but the unborn child does not, for these purposes, count as a life. However, the Septuagint (Greek) translation reads one word completely differently. Where the Hebrew word
ason was translated as harm, the Septuagint reads it as “form”. So the Greek translation reads: “if there be no form [yet to the fetus], he shall be fined … but if there be form, you shall give life for life”. And that means applying the “life for life” principle to the fetus, rather than the mother."
Do you see the difference between those two translations?