Here is a better reading of John 1:1 whereby it says the Word was a god, not God.
That was your/jw/nwt adulteration of the word of God. How can an “a god” came into being before the beginning? Must have come from the multiple gods that “the God” have created before the beginning, right? John 1:1 does not give any evidence of this theory, that there were multiple gods that “the God” have created before the beginning. IOW, there should be multiple gods that “the God” have created where the “a god” came from, right?
In the first clause, i.e., “En arche en ho logos/In the beginning was the Word”, the word “was” or “en” in Greek is in the past tense. In Biblehub interlinear the word “en/was” is in the imperfect tense. The primary function of the imperfect tense is to convey
imperfective (
progressive)
verbal aspect in narrative past-time contexts and in the case of John 1:1A “In the beginning was the Word” the narrative past-time is from eternity, or what John wrote occurred continuously from eternity where there was
no beginning and no end.
IOW, THERE WAS NO CREATION IN ETERNITY BECAUSE THERE NO BEGINNING AND NO END.
“The imperfect tense describes a continuous action usually occurring in the past –William Mounce”
Before the beginning in Genesis 1:1 the Word was in existence already with God [pros ton theon –2nd clause] continuously, or indefinitely, or without time limit as the imperfect tense “was/en” was suggesting. So, if John says, “In the beginning was the Word” then “the Word” was in existence already from eternity before the beginning with “the God”.
In the 2nd clause, “and the Word was with God” “kai ho logos en pros ton theon”. The 2nd clause is self-explanatory. “And the Word was with the God –word for word in Greek to English”. IOW, before the beginning there was a
DISTINCTION already between “the Word” and “the God” or we read two personal beings in existence already before the beginning
as GOD, side by side, as John 1:18 was suggesting “the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father. –John 1:18”
Now, IF YOU READ THE 1ST AND 2ND CLAUSES CORRECTLY OR WITH UNDERSTANDING your/jw/nwt ALTERATION/ADULTERATION of John 1:1’s 3rd clause “and the Word was a god” cannot support the other 2 clauses, i.e., the 1st and 2nd clauses where it says, “In the beginning was the Word”, and “and the Word was with God” for the simple reason that If “the Word” was with “the God” before the beginning of anything that was created as the word “en/was” is suggesting, then we can only conclude that there was nothing yet in existence but “the God” and “the Word” according to John 1:1.
If there was no creation before the beginning then “the Word” cannot be a creation of “the God” and that was the reason why John concluded based on the two premises, i.e., 1st and 2nd clauses, that “the Word was God” and therefore CANNOT BE an “a god”.
So, your/jw/nwt ADULTERATION of the 3rd clause of John 1:1 “and the Word was a god” cannot support the 1st and 2nd clauses.
You/jw/nwt would need to ALTER/ADULTERATE the 1st and 2nd clauses first, so you/jw/nwt can support your adulterated 3rd clause, so you/jw/nwt can support your/jw/nwt twisted evil doctrines.