OneThatGotAway
Servant of Yahweh God Almighty
I don't know what Scriptures you're reading, but the Bible says the word (Jesus) was God. (John 1:1)
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
I am reading the Holy Scriptures that was translated into the Greek language.
Koine Greek: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεός ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Greek transliteration: En archē ēn ho Lógos, kai ho Lógos ēn pros ton Theón, kai Theós ēn ho Lógos.
Greek to English: In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (toward) the God, and God was the Word.
Sahidic Coptic to English: In the beginning existed the Word and the Word existed with the God and a god was the Word
Jubilee Bible: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and the Word was God.
Biblical scholars know that every Word of God must agree with each other in order to avoid false doctrines.
So when we read words that came before John 1:1, such as:
1. "I [am] the [YAHWEH] thy God,...Thou shalt have no other gods before me." (Exodus 20:2-3 KJV)
2. Hear Israel: YAHWEH is our God, YAHWEH is one (Deuteronomy 6:4)
3. I am YAHWEH. That is my name! And my glory will I not give to another; neither my praise to graven images. (Isaiah 42:8)
Bible scholars have to make sure that any branch of translation does not break away from the root of the tree; that is, God's first five books, the Books of the Prophets, and the Books of Wisdom (i.e. Proverbs, Psalms, etc.).
For over 4,000 years, all believers in God believe that there is one God.
Then came later some teachers saying that Jesus Christ is "The God"; now you have two "THE GODS".
The root (Book of Moses & Prophets) does not support this (grafted) branch of translation. Therefore, what shall we do? Scholars have the options to:
1. Re-visit this translation and re-translate it in order to support the Foundation of Scriptures (i.e. the Tanakh), the root.
2. Keep the translation and make the root support the branch translation by:
A. The old truths no longer applies; the new "truths" replaces the old; or
B. The new translation agrees with the old teachings; AND they usually have a harder time explaining why the change?
Now this is why I see that the words in John 1:1 show that Jesus is not "The God".
There are two gods mentioned in John 1:1; and they are: THE GOD (TON THEON) and a god (THEOS)
Jesus is the Son of God; however he is not THE GOD (i.e. TON THEON), he is only a god (THEOS \ THEON).
If you searched the Greek manuscript for the phrase "TON THEON", you will find that this title is only reserved for only for YAHWEH (THE GOD). And this phrase is found 124 times; and not one TON THEON is attributed to or given to Jesus Christ, the Son of God.
Had the Greek Translators kept the name of YAHWEH in their translations; this confusion of "Which God?" would have never been a problem in other languages.
This is why I see that Jesus is simply a god (THEOS, THEON) and not THE GOD (TON THEON), i.e. YAHWEH. Also, THEON and THEOS can refer to THE GOD (YAHWEH) in context.
However, Jesus was using the word "god" much the same way that YAHWEH called Moses a "god" before Pharaoh.
"And [YAHWEH] said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet. (Exodus 7;1)
In addition, Jesus said that he considers himself a god in the same definition of a man being called a "god":
"The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? (THEOI)
If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? (John 10:33-36)
But if you consider Moses to be a "god"; then you have something more than a trinity if you translate and use Jesus' definition of a "god" (THEOUS, THEON), which is from Psalm 82:6. Because the Sons of Gods are considered gods (AELHYM) according to THE LORD (YAHWEH). Of course, this kind of revelation opens the trinity argument to another topic.
By the way, I believe that Bible translators considers it acceptable to add indefinite articles to the word "god"; if the article "a" makes the translation clearer. For example the KJV translators arbitrarily chose when to translate the Greek New Testament nouns with either "god" or "a god". Take for example the following verses that translate THEOS, THEON into "a god": Luke 20:38, Acts 12:22, Acts 28:6, and Hebrews 8:10.
But I read that the Greek translation does not use the indefinite article "a" for nouns in their Holy Bible.
"Boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, thou bearest not the root, but the root thee." (Romans 11:18 KJV)
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