Hey, I just have a couple thoughts here.
First, when we read our English translations of our Bibles, we ought to always take time to study the words we are reading.
The Bible was supposedly written nearly 2,000 years ago.
The word fornicate is a Latin word.
It's first use was in the year 1552.
Someone chose to translate the original Greek word to it's Latin form for a reason. I personally don't know the precise reason why the word fornicate was chosen by the church and its translators, but the last thing we should do is assume that modern English definitions for the word fornicate accurately define the concept of fornication that was intended and understood by those early Bible translators, let alone the actual Greek word as used and intended by the author himself.
As far as we know, 1 Corinthians was first written in Greek. We don't even know for sure, do we, that Paul wrote this letter in Greek. Well, I don't know that. Perhaps I'll look into that, but I doubt anyone knows.
Anyhow, the modern English definition for the word fornicate is "to commit fornication". Well, that's a lexicographical joke, isn't it - defining a word with the same word?
Fornicate - Definition and More from the Free Merriam-Webster Dictionary
Well the modern English definition for the word fornication is "consensual sexual intercourse between two persons not married to each other" It's first use was in the 14th century.
Fornication - Definition and More from the Free Merriam-Webster Dictionary
So when this word was first developed, what was it's purpose? What particular concept was it employed to symbolize? What was its original definition back then, when the word was first created in Latin? Well, the Merriam-Webster online dictionary had this to say:
fornicate -
"Late Latin fornicatus, past participle of fornicare to have intercourse with prostitutes, from Latin fornic-, fornix arch, vault, brothel.
So, is having intercourse with some particular woman the same thing as having sex with a prostitute? I don't think so.
Now, Paul wrote the verse in Greek, not Latin, and he wrote it about 1500 years earlier than this particular Latin word was created. The Greek word that the Apostle Paul used was "γαμησάτωσαν". The root word here is γαμησo. Go ahead, look up that word. You will find the F word. It has nothing to do with the social construct of marriage. It has nothing to do with the marriage ceremony. It is about the very act of marriage, or in other words, copulation, and sex. It doesn't seem to have had anything at all to do with prostitutes, nor the institution of marriage as we know it today.
Therefore we could rewrite this verse in English, replacing the word "fornicate" with another F word.
Here it is
NASB
But if they do not have self-control, let them {F}; for it is better to {F} than to burn [with passion].
KJB
But if they cannot contain, let them {F}: for it is better to {F} than to burn.
WNTB
If, however, they cannot maintain self-control, by all means let them {F}; for {F}ing is better than the fever of passion.
I would love to be wrong here, so please show me my errors.
