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Is the Bible too Contradictory for All of it to be True?

omega2xx

Well-Known Member
We are arguing Matthew 28:19 and your strawman says, "the JW Bible is not accurate".

THIS is the "Bible" I use.

New International Version
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

New Living Translation
Therefore, go and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit.

English Standard Version
Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

Berean Study Bible
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit,

Berean Literal Bible
Therefore having gone, disciple all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit,

New American Standard Bible
"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,

King James Bible
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

Holman Christian Standard Bible
Go, therefore, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

International Standard Version
Therefore, as you go, disciple people in all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and the Son, and the Holy Spirit,

NET Bible
Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,

New Heart English Bible
Therefore go, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

Aramaic Bible in Plain English
“Therefore go disciple all the nations and baptize them in the name of The Father and The Son and The Spirit of Holiness.”

GOD'S WORD® Translation
So wherever you go, make disciples of all nations: Baptize them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.

New American Standard 1977
“Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,

Jubilee Bible 2000
Go ye therefore and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

King James 2000 Bible
Go you therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit:

American King James Version
Go you therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

American Standard Version
Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit:

Douay-Rheims Bible
Going therefore, teach ye all nations; baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.

Darby Bible Translation
Go [therefore] and make disciples of all the nations, baptising them to the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit;

English Revised Version
Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost:

Webster's Bible Translation
Go ye therefore and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.

Weymouth New Testament
Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations; baptize them into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit;

World English Bible
Go, and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

Young's Literal Translation
having gone, then, disciple all the nations, (baptizing them -- to the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit,

What version do you rely on the most?
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Jesus has reminded me that nobody has answered the question satisfactorily yet.

WHO was given the command to make disciples.? WHOSE job do you believe that it is?
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
It did say something---I rebutted your statement that thee are contradiction in the Bible. You don't believe it did, and that is fine with me. I am sure we will knock heads again, and when you dismiss something in the Bible as not being true, I will show you why it is true. Of course it will be from the Bible and your default position is that all of the Bible is not Gods inspired and inerrant word. Of course that is something you can't prove and saying, when ask, how do you now it is is not, it depends on the verse, is meaningless.
You didn't rebut my statement about the contradiction in the Bible. I cited the differences in the birth stories of Matthew and Luke. You said that levarite marriage solves it. Yet you didn't show that a levarite marriage ever occurred. You didn't show Joseph passing away. You didn't show Mary getting married to someone else. And I showed that a levarite marriage doesn't make sense as Joseph and Mary were only engaged at the time of conception. There was no time.

I then showed, that the two birth stories don't mesh up. I will just repeat myself, so you can finally address the issue: In Luke, it is because of a decree that the family goes from their home in Nazareth, to Bethlehem, to register for a census (a census that did not occur. We know that because there is no record of a census at that time. Not to mention that there was never a law or order that required people to go to their ancestral homes for a census. It makes no sense, as you would pay taxes in the place you lived, not the place that one of your ancestors lived. More so, Palestine would not have been subject to the census, as they were not under direct Roman rule). After the birth, they return home to Nazareth.

In Matthew, there is no census mentioned, no travel mentioned. Instead, the family already lives in Bethlehem. They don't move to Nazareth until quite some time after the birth of Jesus, and only after they come back from Egypt (as in, they live in Egypt for a couple of years, and then relocated to Nazareth after the fact).

You're combining the two Gospels instead of looking at them separately.

I won't answer another question from you until you address the issues. I've answered a handful of questions from you, and you have never responded. So now, why not stick to your word, and show me why what you're saying is true, instead of just repeating the meaningless words.
 

omega2xx

Well-Known Member
See this one?

American King James Version
Go you therefore, and teach all nations

Is it not changed?

That is not what the good translation say. I always use the NASB. It is one of the most accurate translaltions.

I am not going to argue that the original says, "[MY] (Jesus Christ) having gone, [YOU] DISCIPLE (a verb) all nations.......

I am going to argue it doesn't

I assume that you know he said this after he died? Am I wrong?

After He was resurrected is more accurate. When He said it is irrelevant. What is importand is that He did say it.

When someone dies other people think he or she is gone. Right?

They are gone. hey have just change their address.

A disciple was someone in the nation of Israel who was taught by a (live) teacher.
He seemed to have died, but he was still talking to them.
Oh! He could still teach them. THAT is what he was saying.

It is more accurate to say Jesus sent His Holy Spirit to guide God's children into the truth.

Maybe someone took out the "keep on being my disciples".

Is that because it fits you personal theology better?

Nowhere ever, did Jesus promise that he would be replaced by a BOOK.

Christianity does not teach that. If the truth is not in a Bi ble, why do you have so many?

I will ask you
We agree! Did you look up Matthew 28:19 for the oldest version of it?

100 [e] mathēteusate μαθητεύσατε disciple V-AMA-2P
3956 [e] panta πάντα all Adj-ANP
3588 [e] ta τὰ the Art-ANP
1484 [e] ethnē ἔθνη, nations, N-ANP

mathéteuó: to be a disciple, to make a disciple
Original Word: μαθητεύω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: mathéteuó
Phonetic Spelling: (math-ayt-yoo'-o)
Short Definition: I make disciples, make into disciples
Definition: I make a disciple of, [BEING] train[ed] in discipleship; pass: I am trained, discipled, instructed.

Older doesn't mean more accurate. What my version says is good enough.
 

omega2xx

Well-Known Member
I trust that what you say here is true.

Now, please show me that Matthew 28:19 says that to disciple means to make disciples.
Do not show me what men have said it means. Show me what GOD has said it means.

Please.

We have have no way of knowing if we don't use God's word.
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
We have have no way of knowing if we don't use God's word.
I trust that is correct. Using God's word (other than Matthew 28:19, of course) prove that they were correct to add make (the verb) and eliminate disciple (the verb).
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The question is really simple @omega2xx

When someone translated the Bible, they saw, disciple all the nations. Four words.

What might it mean? USING the rest of God's Word, tell me how they decided to change disciple, the verb, into disciples, the plural noun. While you are at it, using the rest of God's Word, tell me how they were right adding the preposition "of" there.

You did not answer my question yet. Have you? I asked you if a nation can become a disciple. The Bible seems to say nations can become disciples.

Please and thank you.
 

omega2xx

Well-Known Member
You didn't rebut my statement about the contradiction in the Bible. I cited the differences in the birth stories of Matthew and Luke. You said that levarite marriage solves it. Yet you didn't show that a levarite marriage ever occurred. You didn't show Joseph passing away. You didn't show Mary getting married to someone else. And I showed that a levarite marriage doesn't make sense as Joseph and Mary were only engaged at the time of conception. There was no time.

Yes I did, you just didn't understand it. In a leverite marriage the first born son, was not given the name of the biological father, He was given the name of the dead brother. That is why the genealogies are different in that one place.

The Bible does nt mention Joseph passing away and Mary did not marry anyone else.

I then showed, that the two birth stories don't mesh up. I will just repeat myself, so you can finally address the issue: In Luke, it is because of a decree that the family goes from their home in Nazareth, to Bethlehem, to register for a census (a census that did not occur. We know that because there is no record of a census at that time. Not to mention that there was never a law or order that required people to go to their ancestral homes for a census. It makes no sense, as you would pay taxes in the place you lived, not the place that one of your ancestors lived. More so, Palestine would not have been subject to the census, as they were not under direct Roman rule). After the birth, they return home to Nazareth.

The Bibles say a census occurred. I will take God's word over you every time. Do you really think all of the records of that time are still available? Just because something doesn't make sense to you does not mean it doesn't make sense, unless you are claiming to be omniscient.

In Matthew, there is no census mentioned, no travel mentioned. Instead, the family already lives in Bethlehem.

So what. Read 10 biographies of Washington. Some will have the exact same information, but some will have different information, and all of the variations could still be true.

They don't move to Nazareth until quite some time after the birth of Jesus, and only after they come back from Egypt (as in, they live in Egypt for a couple of years, and then relocated to Nazareth after the fact).

So what?

You're combining the two Gospels instead of looking at them separately.

Why should we look at them separately? The correct way to read the Bible is to read it all to get the whole story. All of the sayings of Jesus on the cross are not in one gospel, but they are all true and there are no contradictions.

I won't answer another question from you until you address the issues. I've answered a handful of questions from you, and you have never responded. So now, why not stick to your word, and show me why what you're saying is true, instead of just repeating the meaningless words.[/QUOTE]

One you have not answered is what does the allegory in Gal 4:21-31 teach us?

I will not answer any more of yours until you answer that one.
 

omega2xx

Well-Known Member
The question is really simple @omega2xx

When someone translated the Bible, they saw, disciple all the nations. Four words.

What might it mean? USING the rest of God's Word, tell me how they decided to change disciple, the verb, into disciples, the plural noun. While you are at it, using the rest of God's Word, tell me how they were right adding the preposition "of" there.

You did not answer my question yet. Have you? I asked you if a nation can become a disciple. The Bible seems to say nations can become disciples.

Please and thank you.

Making disciple of all nations means to preach the gospel in all nations. That is basically what is commanded in Acts 1:8. WE are only concerned with what God commands us to do. God is responsible with what hapened after we have done our part.

While it is unlikely that a whole nation will be converted from our efforts, Ninevah did at the preaching of Jonah.
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Making disciple of all nations means to preach the gospel in all nations. That is basically what is commanded in Acts 1:8. WE are only concerned with what God commands us to do. God is responsible with what hapened after we have done our part.

While it is unlikely that a whole nation will be converted from our efforts, Ninevah did at the preaching of Jonah.
When I become a disciple does it mean that I am to preach for more disciple making? That is what you and the Bible say.

I believe that when I became a disciple I am to live as though Jesus is teaching me. NOT live as though the Bible is teaching me. Anyone can do that. To live for the Bible is making disciples for it.

When Jesus commanded "disciple", YOU say he meant to make disciples. I say he meant to be disciples. What does a disciple do? YOU say a disciple is for making more disciples. I say a disciple is for living, praying, teaching and preaching for The Kingdom of God.
YOU say it means to make more disciples. The disciples you make, what are they suppose to be disciples of?
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
The disciples a disciple makes in obedience to Matthew 28:19 what do you make them disciples of?

A disciple means to learn by a teacher. There are many, many ways that the Bible is being taught.
If I am to make a disciple to obey Matthew 28:19 your way, to which discipline am I to direct him or her?
 

omega2xx

Well-Known Member
When I become a disciple does it mean that I am to preach for more disciple making? That is what you and the Bible say.

No. Acts 1:8 Jesus says wse will be His witnesses. We witness to others by living by what Jesus taught us---love you neighbor---love each other---love your enemies. WE can be a witness and never say a word,

I believe that when I became a disciple I am to live as though Jesus is teaching me
NOT live as though the Bible is teaching me. Anyone can do that. To live for the Bible is making disciples for it.


How do you know what Jesus is teaching you if not from the Bible?


When Jesus commanded "disciple", YOU say he meant to make disciples. I say he meant to be disciples.

The bible says "make" I am going to stick with God on this one.


What does a disciple do? YOU say a disciple is for making more disciples. I say a disciple is for living, praying, teaching and preaching for The Kingdom of God.
YOU say it means to make more disciples. The disciples you make, what are they suppose to be disciples of?[/QUOTE]

If you are going to change what the Bible clearly says, I see no need in continuing this discussion.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Yes I did, you just didn't understand it. In a leverite marriage the first born son, was not given the name of the biological father, He was given the name of the dead brother. That is why the genealogies are different in that one place.
I understood you. And I rebutted your argument as it makes no sense here. To claim a levarite marriage, you have to claim something that has no evidence. Not to mention that it doesn't change the genealogy. The brother, and dead brother still have the same father, so the genealogy would continue in the same manner.

And they don't disagree in just one place, but in many. The first place is Joseph's father, either Jacob or Heli. Both agree next with Matthan/Matthat, but they disagree in the next entry, Levi or Eleazar. The next is also different, Melchi or Eliud. And they just keep disagreeing from there, Jannai or Achim. Joseph or Zadok. Mattathias or Azor. Even from which son of David they disagree. Matthew is from Solomon, Luke is from Nathan. The two agree very seldom.

So no, you didn't offer a rebuttal. You claimed levarite marriage, for one place. You seem unaware that it isn't just one place where they disagree.

So why don't we start there. Offer a rebuttal. Explain why the two genealogies disagree with each other, and why they don't contradict each other. I will address rest of your post in a separate post, in case you want to go back to the other points.
 
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