So you admit that less guns would lead to less homicides?
No. But I do admit that less guns would lead to less gun deaths.
And yet the only place that seems to have mass killings on a fairly regular basis is America, with most of those mass killings being carried out using guns.
That is not quite true either. Mass killings occur throughout the world.
Again, this argument is simply based on denying the reality of the situation. A decrease in gun availability does not somehow lead to an increase in bomb availability.
No. Tools to make bombs are regularly available. Guns simply provide an efficient, more precise means of killing. This does not mean in their absence people wanting to kill will not do so with the means they can muster.
You made the argument that "trading firearm deaths for baseball bat deaths is hardly a good trade," and I pointed out that this actually is a good trade because baseball bats are statistically far less deadly and almost impossible to use for mass killing.
And I pointed out that your argument is a poor one. You are purposefully misunderstanding my point. I need not list every form of murder. "Baseball bats" was merely a place holder.
You'd be essentially trading a lot of deaths for severe injuries and almost eliminate mass killings.
No if you traded each homicide for another you would be left with the same number of homicides. Why do you think that your point is worth pursuing? Need I stress the various means beyond bats and now bombs?
Would you care to show where my interpretation of the studies is wrong?
Yes, but I think it would be a waste of effort. Look at the statement you made and see if all of those studies reach that conclusion. Do you really believe that all of the studies reached the same conclusion or was that just posturing?
Nope, I just accidentally pulled up two links I didn't realize were to the same study. But go ahead and assume deception if that makes you feel superior.
I wouldn't say superior. But given that and your use of "well-regulated" what am I supposed to think?
Let us evaluate though:
You have suggested all of the studies reach the same conclusion. Some studies are related to gun deaths in general and some are related to an increased chance of being a victim of homicide. Already we have different conclusions but you are claiming the same conclusions. These conclusions are further diversified when we count amomg those studies reviewed studies concerning self defense rates. A mere misstatement on your part?
Then we have using the words "well regulated" to imply that the right to keep and bear arms should be well regulated. A mere misunderstanding?
Then we have quoting the same study in different formats to provide me with sources. A simple oversight?
The study that you were quoting, from 2000, uses statistics from 1993 (a peak in U.S. violence) and is refuted by common sense comparison to statistics today. Just not thoroughly researched?
We have your attempt at a 'gotcha' point by belaboring the difference between bats and firearms. Perhaps you just misunderstood my point?
You used a pop science source. Mainly quoted reviews. And you have ignored the lack of causation in those studies and instead emphasize that access of guns directly correlates with homicide, suicide and general crime. This is misleading. I can offer Japan as a counter example for suicide and Brazil as a counter example for homicide. The truth is that one can certainly pick and choose various countries in order to make assertions like you have, yet the correlation does not hold without manipulation.
Doesn't change the fact that availability of guns correlates with homicide rates.
Does it? If we take the data in U.S. 1993 from your study and compare that to data today in the U.S., we would see a negative correlation with guns. So, it seems to me that we have negated your correlation.
And what do you base this suggestion on?
Homicide rates before and after gun regulation in the U.S. and abroad.
That the use and ownership of guns should be well-regulated.
No. The correct answer was Militia.
So guns shouldn't be regulated at all? Are you serious?
Not federally. We can have a go aboit incorporation and original intent to sort out state regulation.
Once again, the amendment states that the purpose of bearing arms is "a well-regulated militia".
No it emphasizes the importance of a well regulated militia.
You advocate using guns in an entirely unregulated fashion. This may technically be a correct interpretation of the right, but it shows complete disregard for he amendment's stated aim and intention.
I think it embodies the aim and intent.
You realize amendments are a thing, right? The second actually being one? In any case, an amendment isn't even needed, since it already specifies "well-regulated" in the amendment already.
Yes it does emphasize that well regulated militias are important. Regarding the right to keep and bear arms it mentions that the right shall not be infringed.
No, it's an acceptance of reality. The idea that we can disregard gun control as even an option and simply work to prevent random killings some other way is a pipe dream.
No, it is not.
False. Regulation is not disregarding.
No but most involves disregarding.
Then perhaps you need to adjust your perspective.
Or perhaps you need to adjust yours.