Divination, which takes many different forms, is a method of obtaining knowledge from familiar spirits; to my understanding, this knowledge does not come directly from God, and that is the reason it's condemned. The practices include rhabdomancy, hepatoscopy, teraphim, necromancy, astrology, hydromancy, lots, and occasionally dreams.
Umm. Your definition seems to be off. Casting lots is 100% kosher. Look back to the yearly atonement ritual (Yom Kippur) in Leviticus. They cast lots to see which animal was sacrificed and which one was sent into the wilderness. The prohibition we're talking about is, "
וּמְנַחֵ֖שׁ". The kjv translates this as "one who interprets omens". It's at least related to how Bilaam prophesied. This is disclosed in Numbers 24:1 "[Bilaam] did not, as at other times, seek
נְחָשִׁ֑ים...". So simply taking the definition as "divination" is not going to be entirely accurate.
The soul of Jesus was one with the Spirit of his Father [
John 10:30], and this enabled him to know the Father's will. We also know that he pointed to the 'sign of Jonas' to indicate not just his death but also his resurrection after three days and nights [
Matthew 12:39,40]. This shows that the information had already been revealed in prophecy, and was not entirely new.
Just because it was revealed in prophecy, doesn't mean that the method for obtaining the prophecy is allowed for a Jewish prophet. Remember, the claim was (paraphrasing) "Jesus was the prophet spoken about in Deuteronomy 18:15". He can still be
a prophet even if he's not
the prophet or practicing Judaism.
from a Christian point of view, there are numerous prophecies that indicate the death of the Son of Man. So, Jesus, as a prophet, was building on what already existed in the word of God. It may have been that the detail of his death became clearer as his ministry advanced.
I don't disagree.
But that doesn't help. What's needed is an example of another Jewish prophet who portends when they are supposed to die. Otherwise, it's not a stretch to consider the possibility that Jesus was not following Jewish law during his ministry.
Let us not also forget that Jesus quoted Psalm 22 on the cross.
The topic is
וּמְנַחֵ֖שׁ, a prohibition which would disqualify a prophet from the Jewish community. What does Psalm 22 have to do with it?
If we're being reminded of scripture though, I'd like to remind you that if you compare what Bilaam says ( Numbers 23:12 ) with what Jesus says ( John 12:49 ), there is a similarity to their approach.