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Jesus Failed Right?

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist

Matthew 28:19-20​

New International Version​

19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you. And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age​


You are not making any sense as I was responding to this previous post of yours: "The Jewish followers of Jesus said he was for the Jews. Jesus said go into all the world not all of Israel who rejected him." It's the underline part that is simply not true as the Apostles were all Jewish as were many others in the Way.
 

Nakosis

Non-Binary Physicalist
Premium Member
Whar was the topic again I forgot, I would have taken you as one to say well Jesus failed again, but apparently not. You enjoy art apparently.

Well, no point in getting personal if you have nothing to say relevant to the topic.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
No, the Jewish authors of the scriptures were still suffering from the chosen people delusion! They put words into Jesus' mouth!
And you know that how? Mind you, I'm very far from being a literalist and/or a believer in biblical inerrancy, but it seems you've gone way overboard with your statement above.
 

user4578

Member
Well, no point in getting personal if you have nothing to say relevant to the topic.
No that was my question, you didn't answer it. If he had quoted say something eschatological out of Matthew that would have entailed a completely different conversation, instead this so-called comma gets picked up and that is made the new subject of discussion. They call that a strawman, more or less. Nonetheless you made a statement 'Interesting that Mark 16:9-20 Itself was not part of earlier manuscripts' which no one can tell where or how it was formed, you are not an expert, you just said so. Were you quoting a critical scholar mentioned on the page, or were you summarizing a speculation found on the page? And this only after you were compelled to give up the source for your statement.
 

Colt

Well-Known Member
I'm not sure we agree as much as you think.



And yet progressive Christians kept the destructive stuff in the Bible and still proclaimed it as "God's word."
No one can agree on what to remove from the scriptures and there are many different Christians.
 

Nakosis

Non-Binary Physicalist
Premium Member
No that was my question, you didn't answer it.
Didn't really see a question, just assumptions. Perhaps if you could put it clearly in the form of a question?

If he had quoted say something eschatological out of Matthew that would have entailed a completely different conversation,

Sure

instead this so-called comma gets picked up and that is made the new subject of discussion.

Comma, comment? which comma/comment are you referring to?

They call that a strawman, more or less.

They call what a strawman.

Nonetheless you made a statement 'Interesting that Mark 16:9-20 Itself was not part of earlier manuscripts'
which no one can tell where or how it was formed,

You're asking where this statement came from? It came from me.

you are not an expert, you just said so. Were you quoting a critical scholar mentioned on the page, or were you summarizing a speculation found on the page?

Neither.

And this only after you were compelled to give up the source for your statement.

I was providing references in case you are someone else wanted to look into it further.
 

user4578

Member
I was providing references in case you are someone else wanted to look into it further
Did you even read the rest of that article? There is listed there much of the evidence for its inclusion which you failed to read, or at least didn't bother to mention. I guess we'll just pretend that that article is entirely in support of your single statement then? Maybe we should instead thank you for providing much of the evidence that supports the contrary!
 

Nakosis

Non-Binary Physicalist
Premium Member
Did you even read the rest of that article? There is listed there much of the evidence for its inclusion which you failed to read, or at least didn't bother to mention. I guess we'll just pretend that that article is entirely in support of your single statement then? Maybe we should instead thank you for providing much of the evidence that supports the contrary!

How about you stop making inane statements and bring up some of this contrary evidence for discussion?
And certainly, if I've provided you evidence to the contrary, you're welcome.
 

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
This makes things even worse, especially when coming from the same author.
Did Jesus lie the first time, or did he change his mind later? What caused him to change his mind? And can a God change his mind?

By the way, the verse you quoted can not be found in older Greek and Latin manuscripts. Eusebius of Caesarea writes in almost all of his books written prior to 336 AD that Matthew 28:19 reads: "Go ye and make disciples of all nations in my name, teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you."
I would say that he accomplished phase one and then said “Start phase two"

Acts 1:8 But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be witnesses to Me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.”

First the Jewish people and then the Gentiles and it is apparent that the Apostles believed that too
 

InChrist

Free4ever
As I said, no author is more emphatic that Jesus is NOT God than the author of John.

And John's Jesus, like Paul's, being a gnostic-flavored Jesus, created the material universe, unlike the other three Jesuses/ This is in direct disagreement with Genesis, which attributes creation to the one God of the Tanakh, and not to any envoy of God or business partner of God. What could be a balder declaration of envoy status and NOT God status than John's Jesus' "John 17: 3 “And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.”



That child (Isaiah 7:14) was born to that woman-of-marriageable age (to render the Hebrew as the concordance says) and the plot had finished with that child before the end of Isaiah 8.

Virginity is asserted with the Jesuses of Matthew and of Luke. It's never mentioned by Paul or the authors of Mark or John. An objective onlooker might note that it actually could make political sense if the authors of Matthew and of Luke thought Jesus was conceived outside of wedlock. But for one reason or another they seized on the Septuagint's translation of Isaiah 7:14, where the Greek word indeed is the word for 'virgin' while the Hebrew original is not.


Is there any evidence that the gospel authors had ever read anything by Paul? They'd certainly never met him. The author of John attributes the same gnostic qualities to Jesus that Paul does ie pre-existing in heaven with God and creating the material universe regardless of Genesis. The synoptic authors express no such views, as far as I'm aware ─ feel free to correct me.

Thanks for the mention of 2 Peter 3. I think it's fair to say that the authorship and dating of both letters attributed to Peter are matters of considerable and unresolved scholarly disagreement. What I think is relevant to my view is that there's no evidence the gospel authors knew of Paul's writings.


David is said to be God's son via Psalms 2:7, but I'm not aware of the title Son of God (meant to be taken literally) elsewhere in the Tanakh.

And it seems to me to be a good idea, when in doubt about matters mentioned in the Tanakh, to ask your Jewish friends what they think it means. It's their book, after all. And the Jesus of the NT was not triune, not God's equal, in any version, and doesn't become God until the fourth century CE.

IF Jesus was God, he only had to say so clearly once ─ but instead, as I said, all five version expressly deny they're God (as I showed you) and never claim to be God.

Why would all four gospel Jesuses go into the garden and ask God to change [his] mind about the coming crucifixion part? Had any of them been God, that would have simply happened; instead God (as entirely distinct from Jesus) said, No, the plan for you to die now is going ahead. Why would the Jesuses of Mark and Matthew say on the Cross, "Me, me, why have I forsaken me?"
Why? Because Jesus was speaking to His Father God from His human position, not taking to Himself. Because the Son of God became fully human in the Person of Jesus Christ, therefore He endured and experienced the full range of human emotions, including grief and agony. The sins of the world were laid upon Jesus…the Father had to turn His back on and forsake His beloved Son. This was horrendously painful for Jesus who had always been eternally In loving relationship with His Father. The is the excruciating price both the Father and the Son paid for our sins, so that we would not have to endure such painful separation from God, our Creator and Source of all life, love, and goodness. Jesus words are understandable to me.
 

blü 2

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Why? Because Jesus was speaking to His Father God from His human position, not taking to Himself.
Of course he was talking to himself. In the triune notion there's only one god, isn't there?

Because the Son of God became fully human in the Person of Jesus Christ, therefore He endured and experienced the full range of human emotions, including grief and agony. The sins of the world were laid upon Jesus…the Father had to turn His back on and forsake His beloved Son.
Explain this mystery to me, since although I've asked it before, no one has responded. God is omnipotent, right? If [he] wants to forgive sins, [he] just has to say, "Hey everyone, your sins are all forgiven, okay?"

So why on earth did Jesus have to die for anything? What did his death achieve that God's omnipotence was otherwise incapable of?
 

Ebionite

Well-Known Member
God is omnipotent, right?
No.

And YHWH was with Judah; and he drave out [the inhabitants of] the mountain; but could not drive out the inhabitants of the valley, because they had chariots of iron.
Judges 1:19

So why on earth did Jesus have to die for anything?
He didn't. He repudiated blood sacrifice like Hosea and David did. The cleansing of the temple was about violence, but the Pharisees spun it as being about commerce.
 

InChrist

Free4ever
Of course he was talking to himself. In the triune notion there's only one god, isn't there?
One Godhead, three Persons; Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
Explain this mystery to me, since although I've asked it before, no one has responded. God is omnipotent, right? If [he] wants to forgive sins, [he] just has to say, "Hey everyone, your sins are all forgiven, okay?"

So why on earth did Jesus have to die for anything? What did his death achieve that God's omnipotence was otherwise incapable of?
You mean like a judge in a courtroom should just forgive crimes, “Hey, your murders, rapes, thefts, child abuse, kidnappings, etc. are all forgiven; you’re free, carry on”?
The scriptures are clear enough; Jesus took upon Himself the sins of everyone, paid the death penalty, offers forgiveness and eternal life to everyone.
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
You mean like a judge in a courtroom should just forgive crimes, “Hey, your murders, rapes, thefts, child abuse, kidnappings, etc. are all forgiven; you’re free, carry on”?
That seems more just than atonement theology: "hey - I punished the only completely innocent man for a weekend, so your murders, rapes, thefts, child abuse, kidnappings, etc. are all forgiven; you’re free, carry on."
 

InChrist

Free4ever
That seems more just than atonement theology: "hey - I punished the only completely innocent man for a weekend, so your murders, rapes, thefts, child abuse, kidnappings, etc. are all forgiven; you’re free, carry on."
Not quite, because since I believe Jesus is God and because of His human sinlessness, He Alone was capable of carrying the weight and paying for the sins of the world. According to the scriptures, those who place their faith in Him as their advocate and Savior must do so with repentance and sorrow for their actions, not a flippant attitude of continuing on in sin. Finally, those who give their lives to Jesus have their lives transformed and are made new… so no carrying on.

Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new.
2 Corinthians 5:17
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
Not quite, because since I believe Jesus is God and because of His human sinlessness, He Alone was capable of carrying the weight and paying for the sins of the world. According to the scriptures, those who place their faith in Him as their advocate and Savior must do so with repentance and sorrow for their actions, not a flippant attitude of continuing on in sin. Finally, those who give their lives to Jesus have their lives transformed and are made new… so no carrying on.

Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; old things have passed away; behold, all things have become new.
2 Corinthians 5:17

If repentence for murder, theft, kidnapping, etc., is enough to excuse God's lack of punishment, why would Jesus's sacrifice be necessary?

The punishment of the innocent is an unjust act. It can't add justice to any situation.
 

InChrist

Free4ever
If repentence for murder, theft, kidnapping, etc., is enough to excuse God's lack of punishment, why would Jesus's sacrifice be necessary?

The punishment of the innocent is an unjust act. It can't add justice to any situation.
There is no lack of punishment. The punishment was placed upon Jesus Christ; by His choice in order to open the way for mercy and forgiveness. Repentance alone doesn’t save anyone, rather trusting that Jesus paid for one’s sins.

Punishment of the innocent is unjust. But no one is innocent.

…for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, being justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus
Romans 3:23-24
 

Sargonski

Well-Known Member
If repentence for murder, theft, kidnapping, etc., is enough to excuse God's lack of punishment, why would Jesus's sacrifice be necessary?

The punishment of the innocent is an unjust act. It can't add justice to any situation.

It is symbolic .. the sacrifice .. which does not absolve sin .. in of itself but makes forgiveness possible .. for those who repent. All must pass through judgement at the end of days ... the sacrifice does not get anyone a free pass through judgement .. and through into heaven.. Don't buy in to the Demon Lord Marty's "Free Pass" ideology .. that you can get some token gets you through Judgement ... Nay , Nay, Nay, it don't go that way.. don't listen to what that wolf in sheeps clothing Marty say..
 

9-10ths_Penguin

1/10 Subway Stalinist
Premium Member
There is no lack of punishment. The punishment was placed upon Jesus Christ; by His choice in order to open the way for mercy and forgiveness.

Ah... so it's only the guilty who avoid punishment. This still sounds unjust.

Repentance alone doesn’t save anyone, rather trusting that Jesus paid for one’s sins.

This seems inconsistent with what you said earlier.

Punishment of the innocent is unjust. But no one is innocent.

You think Jesus wasn't innocent? Surprising, but okay.
 
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