As I said, no author is more emphatic that Jesus is NOT God than the author of John.
And John's Jesus, like Paul's, being a gnostic-flavored Jesus, created the material universe, unlike the other three Jesuses/ This is in direct disagreement with Genesis, which attributes creation to the one God of the Tanakh, and not to any envoy of God or business partner of God. What could be a balder declaration of envoy status and NOT God status than John's Jesus' "John 17: 3 “And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.”
That child (Isaiah 7:14) was born to that woman-of-marriageable age (to render the Hebrew as the concordance says) and the plot had finished with that child before the end of Isaiah 8.
Virginity is asserted with the Jesuses of Matthew and of Luke. It's never mentioned by Paul or the authors of Mark or John. An objective onlooker might note that it actually could make political sense if the authors of Matthew and of Luke thought Jesus was conceived outside of wedlock. But for one reason or another they seized on the Septuagint's translation of Isaiah 7:14, where the Greek word indeed is the word for 'virgin' while the Hebrew original is not.
Is there any evidence that the gospel authors had ever read anything by Paul? They'd certainly never met him. The author of John attributes the same gnostic qualities to Jesus that Paul does ie pre-existing in heaven with God and creating the material universe regardless of Genesis. The synoptic authors express no such views, as far as I'm aware ─ feel free to correct me.
Thanks for the mention of 2 Peter 3. I think it's fair to say that the authorship and dating of both letters attributed to Peter are matters of considerable and unresolved scholarly disagreement. What I think is relevant to my view is that there's no evidence the gospel authors knew of Paul's writings.
David is said to be God's son via Psalms 2:7, but I'm not aware of the title Son of God (meant to be taken literally) elsewhere in the Tanakh.
And it seems to me to be a good idea, when in doubt about matters mentioned in the Tanakh, to ask your Jewish friends what they think it means. It's their book, after all. And the Jesus of the NT was not triune, not God's equal, in any version, and doesn't become God until the fourth century CE.
IF Jesus was God, he only had to say so clearly once ─ but instead, as I said, all five version expressly deny they're God (
as I showed you) and never claim to be God.
Why would all four gospel Jesuses go into the garden and ask God to change [his] mind about the coming crucifixion part? Had any of them been God, that would have simply happened; instead God (as entirely distinct from Jesus) said, No, the plan for you to die now is going ahead. Why would the Jesuses of Mark and Matthew say on the Cross, "Me, me, why have I forsaken me?"