It stands to reason that if Jesus said "It is written" and quoted a scripture in the OT where the divine name appeared in the text, that the name should appear in the quoted verse....but seeing as how the Jews had stopped using the divine name and substituted the word "LORD" for YHWH, confusion resulted when the Lord Jesus Christ, somehow became the LORD YHWH (JEHOVAH)
That renders Jesus' statements at Luke 4 nonsensical.
In each of the temptations that the devil brought to Jesus he answered with "It is written" and in each of the quotations the divine name appears in the OT. But when translated into Greek and then to English, the title "Lord" is substituted for YHWH.
In the first instance Jesus said..."
“It is written, ‘Man must not live on bread alone.’” Quoting Deuteronomy 8:3 which says...
" that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by everything that proceedeth out of the mouth of Jehovah doth man live" (ASV)
The second temptation was satan asking for an act of worship in exchange for all the kingdoms of this world. Jesus replied..
."It is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." But in Deuteronomy 10:20 that he was quoting it says...
"Thou shalt fear Jehovah thy God; him shalt thou serve; and to him shalt thou cleave, and by his name shalt thou swear." (ASV)
The last temptation was asking Jesus to throw himself off the battlement of the Temple and Jesus saying...
"“It is said, ‘You shall not put the Lord your God to the test.’” Where was it said? Deuteronomy 6:16...
"Ye shall not tempt Jehovah your God..."
If the quoted scripture had contained the divine name as it had in the original text, there would have been no confusion. If God's name was in the Hebrew text, it should have been in the Greek text too.
Early fragments show that it
was left in its Hebrew letters in the Greek text. The timeline illustrates how far back this goes.
A5 The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY
Psalm 110:1-2 also illustrates the problem of removing God's name from the Bible........."
The Lord says to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand,
until I make your enemies your footstool.”
2 The Lord sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter.
Rule in the midst of your enemies!" (ESV)
"The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
2 The Lord shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies." (KJV)
"Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand,
Until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
2 Jehovah will send forth the rod of thy strength out of Zion:
Rule thou in the midst of thine enemies." (ASV)
"The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: `Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.'
2 The rod of thy strength doth Jehovah send from Zion, Rule in the midst of thine enemies." (YLT)
Psalm 110 is a classic example of where the use of the divine name clears up any confusion.
The ESV makes no distinction between the first "Lord" and the second, and the KJV follows the same pattern.
The ASV and the YLT leave us in no doubt who is speaking to whom. It is "Jehovah" saying to David's "Lord" (Messiah)
"sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool."
Had the divine name been left in the Hebrew and translated into the Greek, the trinity would not exist.