godnotgod
Thou art That
That's not rhyming nor does it clear up any problems. For example:
"Those Gospels which survive, however, all of them in the dialects of Aramaic generally known as Syriac, are translations from our present Greek Gospels into Aramaic. The process of translating the Greek Gospels into Aramaic is signficantly different from trying to reconstruct original sources. Nowhere is this better illustrated than with the term `son of man'. This was originally the Aramaic ברנשא, a normal term for `man'. By the processes of translation and Christological development, this became a Christological title in Greek,"ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου. Since it had become a Christological title, it could not be translated into Syriac with (בר (אנש(א. Hence Tatian produced the expression ברה ראנשא, and later translators produced also ברה רגברא and ברה רבנשא. These expressions naturally lent themselves to interpretation remote from the original (בר (אנש(א."
Casey, M. (1998). Aramaic sources of Mark's Gospel (Vol. 102). Cambridge University Press.
The single example you give isn't poetry or wordplay. It's a guarantee you'd get this from translating just about any text into any Semitic dialect. Why? Because all Semitic languages are built off of 3-consanent roots. So completely different words are guaranteed to be vastly more likely to be spelt similarly and sound similar despite being completely different in meaning given any Semitic language compared to just about any non-Semitic language. If you translate any Latin play, Greek play, even Shakespeare into Aramaic you'll magically find parallels exactly like that you did. That's simply the nature of the language. You can compare it to actual Semitic poetry (from e.g., the Song of Solomon to the Koran) and guess what? It differs.
But once translated, does the rhyming text make any sense?