'was made' is not being used in the sense of 'making' something, such as an artifact; it is used in the sense of 'made to be', or 'appear as'.
My god. The word isn't "made". The word in question
means to exist, to be, to come to pass, to come to be (become). The word for "to appear" is
dokein.
Nothing 'becomes' something else.
Yet in languages you don't read there was actually a word that was similar to the English "to be" only it meant "to become something else". To peoples from earliest antiquity to the modern day, lots of things become something else and in fact this is a driving principle. Just scan through Ovid's
Metamorphoses or attend a Catholic or Eastern Orthodox mass in which the bread and wine are believed to literally become the body and blood of Jesus.
Wood is wood and ash is ash. Wood does not become ash.
Sure it does. But this is irrelevant. We're not dealing with your belief system but with what the text says. It doesn't say "appear" and can't. It's the wrong word.
Here's a better translation:
"1a In the beginning there was the Word,
1b and the Word was very close to God,
1c and the Word too was God.
2a This Word was, in the beginning, with God;
3a Through it, all things came into being,
3b and without it, not one thing came into being.
3c-4a What has come into being† |in it was life,
4b and this life was the light of mankind,
5a and the light is shining in the darkness,
5b and the darkness has never become master of it.
[† 3c: or What came into being]"
from
McHugh, J. F. (2009).
A critical and exegetical commentary on John 1-4 (International Critical Commentary). T&T Clark Int'l.
[The light is already present at this point]
There's no reason to necessarily read the text this way. However, as we could waste a long time on a pointless Christological discussion when the only reason I have disagreed with you on what "light" meant was because you sought to defend the notion that Jesus was a solar deity. He's not, and once again the light in John is metaphorical (as is the darkness). Cf. the War of the Sons of Light Against the Sons of Darkness described in the Qumran finds. Also:
In religious literature the use of the term ‘darkness’ is almost certain to be metaphorical. It refers not to the absence of physical light, but rather to that ‘encircling gloom’ of doubt or depression, of uncertainty or despair, where it would be a grace to see but one step ahead (cf. Ps 119.105). Similarly, LSJ records that in the Iliad, ὁ σκότος always refers to the darkness of death, mostly in the phrase τὸν δὲ σκότος ὄσσε κάλυψεν (Il. 4.461 etc.), but also in lines such as στυγερὸς δ᾽ ἄρα μιν σκότος εἷλε (Il. 5.47; 13.672). Again, the texts from Qumran about the struggle between the Prince of Light and the Angel of Darkness (1QS III 20-26), or between the children of light and the children of darkness (1QS I 9-10; II 16-17; III 24-25), serve to illustrate the currency of this metaphor in the religious literature of the age...This is the first mention of the contrast between light and darkness in the Fourth Gospel, and two statements are made. φαίνει: the close parallel in 1 Jn 2.8 (ἡ σκοτία παράγεται καὶ τὸ φῶς τὸ ἀληθινὸν ἤδη φαίνει is there certainly intended to refer to the age in which the writer is living"
(ibid)
Now, if you wish to see the author as saying that the light was always there, a light for all humanity before there was any humanity or even creation for there to be a light for, fine. I'm not really concerned with such interpretations, just with the ones that are relevant and clearly wrong. Jesus wasn't a solar deity and the light here doesn't refer to the sun.