The Holy Bottom Burp
Active Member
These sort of discussions are always hampered by the lack of agreement on definitions, it really is a minefield, my head hurts a bit after reading this thread!Do you think that a lack of belief in free will in this sense undermines the notion that morality is objective, that our moral codes are somehow external from individual or societal preference?
To answer your question, first, what do you mean by "morality is objective"? In the Sam Harris sense, that anything that harms the wellbeing of another human being is considered to be "objectively immoral", while anything that promotes wellbeing is "objectively moral"? I don't see how that changes even if we were to "prove" that we have no control over our actions.
Just to broaden the discussion in more colloquial terms, I don't believe life has any meaning in an objective sense, I'm an atheist. There is no "external" arbiter of what is moral and what is immoral, it is us who decide that, even if we have no ultimate control over what we do or what we decide. We are stuck with it, and I mean we are really stuck with it if what you outline in the OP is reality.
I can mentally absorb that the holocaust has no meaning, it was an event in time like everything else. That doesn't mean though, as a human being, I don't consider it to be appalling and "objectively immoral" in that it harmed the wellbeing of human beings on a massive scale. I can understand my love for a woman may be just down to evolution and chemistry, but that doesn't stop me from loving her. I recognise that it may be a glorious illusion, but it is a very nice illusion, and as a human I'm going to continue wallowing in that happy illusion. So I don't see how what you propose changes anything. Even if we recognise that the murderer had no control over his decision to murder his wife, what do we do? Say, oh well, sh*t happens, it wasn't his fault?