I find it interesting when people start going on about errors and omissions in the bible. Almost always, this is used in an attempt to discredit its authenticity or reliability. Almost always, errors are pointed out that do not have any bearing on the writers intended meaning.
In the first example in the referenced URL above... Matt 9:13 repentance is missing in NIV, NAS, NWT
Does it really make any difference to the meaning of the text whether or not sinners are being called or, called to repentence? Are not these the exact same meaning? (I would argue they mean the exact same thing based on many OT prophets calling people to repentance).
For example, John the Baptist referenced Isaiah in John 1 when he said of his mission
“I am a voice of one calling in the wilderness,
‘Make straight the way for the Lord.’ ”
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When we read John 1:19-32, isn't it plainly obvious that Jesus came to call sinners unto himself...doesn't that universally mean in the Bible that one is supposed to repent and turn to God?
I do not see any contradiction or error here simply because some bible translations leave out the "repent" part. That is plainly obvious from many other earlier and later biblical passages.
The omission of "the son of man is come to save that which was lost" in Mt 19:17 in NIV,NAS,NWT...again, its plainly obvious from dozens of other bible passages both earlier and later than Mt 19 as to why the Son of Man came to this earth. Isaiah 9:6, one of the most famous passages in the entire bible, clearly outlines exactly why he was/is come.
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The URL reference claimed Luke 4:4 is an error in other translations...it is not
Luke 4:4 "but by every word of God" is omitted in NIV, NASV,NWT...yes but where did Jesus get this this is quote from? It comes from two passages written thousands of years earlier by Moses...
Deuteronomy 6:13
13Fear the LORD your God, serve Him only, and take your oaths in His name.c 14Do not follow other gods, the gods of the peoples around you.
and Deuteronomy 8:3
3He humbled you, and in your hunger He gave you manna to eat, which neither you nor your fathers had known, so that you might understand that man does not live on bread alone, but on every word that comes from the mouth of the LORD.
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The apparent omission/contractiction in Rom 13:9 "thou shalt not bear false witness"
Everyone should already know that Paul is quoting from Exodus 20:16 and what does this one of the 10 commandments say?
Ex 20:
16You shall not bear false witness against your neighbor
so where is the problem with what Paul wrote exactly in the NIV, NAS, NWT? We already know what Exodus 20:16 says and its obvious what it means.
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I do not think it serves any further purpose to go through every one of the list in the URL referenced concerning omissions and contradictions. I will simply say this, one must learn not to zero in on specific passages of scripture or specific bible translations for doctrine...the bible is a complete book, its doctrines must also consider its overall theme/s. We have 4 gospels and different bible translations for a reason...they are the writings of different individuals. Applying Chinese whispers principles here as a means of discrediting it, does not prove the underlying events we read in the gospels are not true or real.. It simply shows the recall and or writing styles of different individuals. It also does not prove that one must follow the KJV bible translation. I have already been down this pathway and whilst there are many conspiracy theories concerning the others, these apparent errors don't make any difference to even a single bible doctrine that I hold dear.
