yeah... still no evidence
To support either side of the discussion. Non-proof is not proof positive either right?
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yeah... still no evidence
To support either side of the discussion. Non-proof is not proof positive either right?
Hey Dude, please note that the sentence you took out of context was from my recreation of your imaginary story. No one ever expected anyone to read three books in reality, but even if so, from most perspectives it does not 'work both ways.' Here's why. My post made a proposal which would involve some understanding of a fairly difficult experience so backup material was provided for the reader if needed. Do you see the difference in your charge for me to spend a lot of time to research examples to make your case against mine? (Particularly when there doesn't seem to be any?) Don't you think that you should be the one to support your case?A1O1 posted taken out of context: You did not read my three books provided that give all kinds of definitions and characteristics to see what a swan really is."
TH responded: And you have not spent any time to seek out the contradictory interpretations I describe. It works both ways here, particularly if you cannot quantify what criteria (independent of interpretational bias) should be used.
This seems obvious to me, Themadhair, because there are other types of experiences that have feelings which might be interpreted similarly (although probably not the same). Also, do you not consider the descriptions of feelings from a subject to be interpretations?A1O1 posted: My position is that descriptions and interpretations of 'emotions and feelings' are not a valid basis to determine that experiences are the same.
TH responded: Of course you hold this position precisely because of your bias towards interpretation.
Ah-hah. You have defined interpretation to include everything. My contention is that you have missed the real situation here by classifying everything as interpretation and then eliminating interpretation as valid for choosing the Experience to talk about. Maybe science can help you eventually. Brain waves and other aspects are under study also. This is irregardless of not being able to produce evidence that something has been left out.And I find the above rather interesting on two counts:
1) You havent offered any criteria that are independent of interpretation, which is crippling to your argument for commonality due to the inherent tautological basis with selection.
2) Bar emotions and feelings, the only other method of comparison that avoid interpretational issues that I am aware of is MRI scanning or similar. This would be the realm of neurotheology which, due to it being a scientific field, probably wouldnt provide you much help.
My ploy to pull a Nonbeliever_92 on you did not work, so let me explain. One hopes that you are getting to know my posting better by now so that you do not get hung up on such points.A1O1 posted: In addition, now your source of Muslims and Christians for enlightenment is suspect.
TH responded: When you make a point it would help somewhat if you provided something alongside the mere assertion of that point. It also raises an interesting question in that, by effectively asking me to discount personal interactions that provide much more insight into this phenomenon than any book can realistically capture, what real basis are you presenting other than declaring your conclusion is wrong because it disagrees with me ?
The answer is simple, Themadhair. In my opinion, the nondual perspective is not an interpretation. It is part of the resultant being. You have not acknowledged anything about my comment that the being and awareness are additional criteria to identify the Mystic Experience.A1O1 posted: One of these, for example, is a dramatic shift in perspective to a nondual one.
TH responded: This is something that I dont get. You will dismiss experiences due to differing interpretations, and claim with a metaphorical straight face that you are not doing so, and yet when you reiterate a characteristic from #526 you reiterate one that is interpretation based???
Several of the above points apply to this.Think about it. Nondualism is part of Christianity, Hindu, Muslim and Buddhist teachings, and Im arguing that the experiences been discussed are being attributed to those respective theologies in an act of conformational bias. Given this, can you see why nondualism as a characteristic is interpretational?
Are you trying to shift the argument to a new point? You based your conclusion of conformational bias on the existence of the same experience without the same conclusion for which there doesn't seem to be good evidence, at least not yet.A101 posted: My post emphasized the interpretation that God was 'in the equation' not to be the basis for selection but because that is the evidence pertinent to this thread.
TM responded: And yet it, and the associated theologies giving rise to certain interpretations, would seem to be very basis for selection.
Exactly. Not only valid but necessary for the conditions of the individual's perspective holding them.
What you indicate seems irrelevant to what has been put forward in this thread. Do you think that man's awareness and consciousness has remained the same for the last several thousand years?
Do you have evidence that The Mystic Experience is psychotic?
Actually, it still does work both ways. The fact that the experiences of an entire group of people strongly seem to have been excluded solely on interpretational grounds is bad enough, but that this is an direct challenge to the proposal for evidence constituted by commonality renders that it does indeed swing both ways.No one ever expected anyone to read three books in reality, but even if so, from most perspectives it does not 'work both ways.'
Not really. The decision of whether you want to accept your own evidence, without proper evaluation of the huge gaping whole that I have pointed out, is entirely up to you. When it comes to this discussion, in terms of quality of sources, then we both come up short since no one (at least to my knowledge) has attempted to tackle the issue independently of the conformational bias problem outside of the field of neurotheology. That field is, currently, unable to provide answers.Do you see the difference in your charge for me to spend a lot of time to research examples to make your case against mine?
Care to be more specific in your accusation here?(Particularly when there doesn't seem to be any?)
I believe I have already done so. When the only grounds you are realistically offering is solely due to the interpretational differences of those contradicting experiences it would seem the point has been well made.Don't you think that you should be the one to support your case?
As a general rule it would seem (at least in my experience) that the life changing affirmation akin to the Mystic Experience occurs relatively early in a Scientologists path. It may even be the hook that reels some people in. It should also be noted that FreeZoners (and Ive heard this from some CoS Scientologists too) dont consider Scientology to have any actual beliefs. They approach it in a manner where they feel they have knowingness (which in some cases may be connected to their shift in perspective).Aside from that, actually several hours have been spent on Scientology although only through the Internet at this stage.
You see, Hubbard, the founder of Scientology, spent some time in the East and got exposure to Buddhism and Taoism before he founded the church.
Direct link to said book is here.Will keep searching if you will kindly spend 45 minutes on the introduction of the History of Mysticism free book that was linked in my post at least to understand better what has been proposed.
Bugging you? This is a debate/discussion forum. You presented a particular item that I feel has a major hole in its reasoning. If I had a better demonstration of that hole that I could reach for and present I would have done so.If we find an experience very similar to the Mystic Experience and the conclusions are pretty consistent with it will you quit bugging me?
Yes I do. Maybe I should probably elaborate on one of the tools I like to use when analysing certain topics. I call this particular tool the ask the alien troglodyte.Also, do you not consider the descriptions of feelings from a subject to be interpretations?
Any conclusion or supposition that does not directly and unambiguously follow from an experience is interpretation. Think about it.You have defined interpretation to include everything.
This would be somewhat more believable if the selection process didnt choose on the basis of interpretation. I believe this point regarding the tautological nature of the selection process has been well made in previous comments.My contention is that you have missed the real situation here by classifying everything as interpretation and then eliminating interpretation as valid for choosing the Experience to talk about.
And pointing out an entire belief system that has been ignored for consideration doesnt show this .how exactly??This is irregardless of not being able to produce evidence that something has been left out.
I tend not to ignore points that have direct relevance to the crux of a discussion.One hopes that you are getting to know my posting better by now so that you do not get hung up on such points.
Only if you start culling on the basis of interpretation again. In which case the conclusion is, for all the reasons pointed out previously, a meaningless tautology.Your chances of running into someone who considers themselves solely a member of those religions who has had this experience are pretty slim - not impossible but slim. The ones that have come to my attention consider themselves ex-.
I would have thought this was obviously wrong. But not so obvious apparently.In my opinion, the nondual perspective is not an interpretation.
I have actually. They are part of the interpretational selection that I have been objecting to all this timeYou have not acknowledged anything about my comment that the being and awareness are additional criteria to identify the Mystic Experience.
Pretty much, although it is more of an extrapolation than an interpretation in some ways.Would you say this is your 'interpretation'?
This doesnt really wash with me, and goes back to something Ive discussed with PureX earlier in this thread. Different people may hold different opinions, but when those opinions are compared against reality they may not prove to be equally valid. Some opinions can, however, be both true and opposite (eg: glass half full and glass half empty). Since this topic is whether the mystic experience constitutes evidence for this dramatically different perspective the actual truth value of this perspective doesnt actually matter.In nonduality there is a different perspective and it is part of the makeup of the being but it is dramatically different from the conventional perspective and it is not interpretation in my thinking.
No. It is exactly the same point Ive been making since post one applied to the context you brought up.Are you trying to shift the argument to a new point?
I dont believe I have told you the reason why I reached the conclusion I have. The support I provided for that conclusion were for the purposes of discussion. If you wanted to know original source for my conclusion then youd pretty much have to live my life.You based your conclusion of conformational bias on the existence of the same experience without the same conclusion for which there doesn't seem to be good evidence, at least not yet.
[FONT="]Yes, from the perspective of Oneness they are all valid and necessary, and this includes your view of atheism. It is valid and necessary for you at the present moment; it is wonderful as long as it does no harm to others. From Oneness, all is God, God is in all, and all is in God. This does not mean that harming others and doing destruction should be condoned, not be controlled and prevented as is possible. Do not be disconcerted. Oneness is a more powerful and rewarding view to all than could be possible to put into words in this thread.I must say that's more than a little disconcerting. There are a lot of whacky (or what I consider to be "whacky") people out there with really whacky ideas about god. Some are just strange, some are really destructive and dangerous. All of these views are valid?
[FONT="]God really is the best term that applies here, Commoner; at least from the nondual perspective. God is not a thing within the universe alongside other things and the terms anything or something cannot be used to point to the same reality. Perhaps a closer look at another term used to point to the same reality will help clarify - one of those terms that really didnt say anything to you. [/FONT]I mean, I'm sure the individual concepts of god are important to the particular individual, but surely you don't want to generalize your concept of god that far? I don't think you can honestly say that and if you do think that, wouldn't that make "god" a pretty irrelevant word? Wouldn't you just want to replace it with "anything" or "something".
[FONT="]What is the point here, Commoner? Hasnt it been indicated that the Mystic Experience has come to us from over 2000 years ago? Thank you for agreeing that it is possible and indicating that consciousness has not changed. This latter is very consistent with those contemporary teacher/guides of spirituality who base some of their teaching on consciousness.[/FONT]Take away the knowledge we have and we are completely the same now as we were (at least) thousands of years ago. Our brains work in completely the same ways - so it's not strange that people have the same experiences now as we did several thousand years ago. The "sensations" are the same - and so their descriptions should be the same, the conclusions, hopefully, differ. I mean, an epileptic still shakes about uncontrollably today as he would have a couple hundred years ago, but very rarely do we still burn them at the stakes for it.
[FONT="]Good one. How does one know that the Mystic Experience is mystical? Because it is in the title? Haha. Seriously, you in your post below, and Copernicus as well, seem not to be able to distinguish between the Mystic Experience and a psychotic experience. From my view the psychotic person has a degree of loss of touch with finite reality and the mystic never loses touch with finite reality. Of course from your perspective, one realizes that if one proposes God Is you must consider it a loss of touch with reality. [/FONT][FONT="] If you are sincere on this though, we could discuss it further, but permit me to continue on the Mystic Experience [/FONT]Do you have evidence that it's "mystical"?
[FONT="]This is a most excellent question, Commoner. Your question gets to the heart of the Mystic Experience itself because the experience is God; God is the experience. The Experience itself is actually ineffable in that it really [FONT="]cannot be communicated, or apprehended by any other means than direct experience. It is a direct affect and effect in the awareness of consciousness and different from any other experience presenting a different way of experiential knowing. It is above space and time and beyond subject/object structure or processes. The Experience (that also might be called awakening and other terms) involves a direct shift of perspective and sense of self into nondual Oneness. And, what is written here are only conceptualizations that point to the Experience. Most who are smarter and wiser do not attempt to describe the Experience to others except perhaps in wise paradoxes (view of the same from the nondual and the dual perspectives), metaphors, parables, myths, etc. See, the problem here is trying to conceptualize from the nondual perspective into the finite dualistic perspective so that others with conventional perspectives can capture a glimpse.[/FONT][/FONT]None of the described attributes of the "mystical experiences" lead to a "god" conclusion in any way - or at least, no more than a psychotic event could. Where is the connection between the experience and god? Where is the causal connection between an experience and claiming that it was god? How do you get from A to B?
[FONT="]Another set of most excellent questions, Comoner. You can add omnipotent and omnipresent. Also, how could someone come up with love your neighbor as yourself, love your enemies, or the Kingdom of Heaven is within you if they were human (which you have to assume). At one time these too were puzzlement to me along with the many sayings around the world from awakened ones like in Taoism the 10000 things and I are one. The Experience gives understanding to them all. For examples: using the concept ground and power of being, Omnipresent is readily understood, right?; omnipotent, or all powerful, is seen as all of the power in the universe, in its source and sustenance; and to explain omniscience, explained for the dualistic mind, God contains all minds and all ways of knowing in the universe.[/FONT]I've often wondered, how the first person who claimed, let's say - that god was omniscient, came to that conclusion - what kind of an experience could justify that sort of claim? And for the concepts of "god" that I've encountered, I've never ever heard or read an experience that would actually make any such claim justified. Even if I take the word of the one explaining the experience completely at face value, no matter how bizare the story might seem to me, I have never stumbled upon a single thing in those experiences that would make such a claim justified. And so it is with any attribute people give to what they call "god".
[FONT="]We only explain within our capabilities and there is never an intention of being vague and undefining to avoid being invalidated. [/FONT][FONT="]As soon as you define "god" in any specific fasion, the concept fails miserably. So I think it's a very good idea, for those who wish to keep the concept alive, to keep "god" as vague and undefined as possible. That way, it can never be invalidated.
[FONT="]More excellent ones. The transformation comes first and is often sudden and then one must figure out what happened. The conceptualization comes afterwards. Concerning your last question, the transformation is part of the experience so if the experience is the same how could it be without this attribute?I also have another question about these experiences you're describing, I don't know if this has been addressed before or not. How do you know that the "transformative" nature is not the consequence of the interpretation itself? That is, how do you know that it's not only those who interpret the experience in a particular way then (as a direct consequence) experience the "transformative effect". Are you sure you haven't incorrectly disregarded other interpretations of the same experience, because they don't include this attribute?
Greetings my friend Themadhair. My apologies for giving you so much with the need for comment. Perhaps in the future only one or two items will be addressed at a time to keep our efforts more manageable. You do seem to do better than my mind can handle, however.Actually, it still does work both ways. The fact that the experiences of an entire group of people strongly seem to have been excluded solely on interpretational grounds is bad enough, but that this is an direct challenge to the proposal for evidence constituted by commonality renders that it does indeed swing both ways.
Not really. The decision of whether you want to accept your own evidence, without proper evaluation of the huge gaping whole that I have pointed out, is entirely up to you. When it comes to this discussion, in terms of quality of sources, then we both come up short since no one (at least to my knowledge) has attempted to tackle the issue independently of the conformational bias problem outside of the field of neurotheology. That field is, currently, unable to provide answers.
Care to be more specific in your accusation here?
I believe I have already done so. When the only grounds you are realistically offering is solely due to the interpretational differences of those contradicting experiences it would seem the point has been well made.
As a general rule it would seem (at least in my experience) that the life changing affirmation akin to the Mystic Experience occurs relatively early in a Scientologists path. It may even be the hook that reels some people in. It should also be noted that FreeZoners (and Ive heard this from some CoS Scientologists too) dont consider Scientology to have any actual beliefs. They approach it in a manner where they feel they have knowingness (which in some cases may be connected to their shift in perspective).
It seems that doing the TRs (Training Routines) and the introductory auditing (both Scientology and Dianetic) are where the experience actually happens. I have not heard of any cases from ex-members (and the FreeZoners I know go more for the Dianetics than the higher levels) of such experiences while doing the higher levels.
And for note I think it very unlikely that Hubbard did any research into Buddhism and/or Taoism in the far east.
Direct link to said book is here.
I added it to my to-read list when you first posted it. At present there are currently only three books in front of it. Antiquity of Man (just started it today), Academy level 0 and (if it arrives) Advanced Procedure and Axioms.
Bugging you? This is a debate/discussion forum. You presented a particular item that I feel has a major hole in its reasoning. If I had a better demonstration of that hole that I could reach for and present I would have done so.
Yes I do. Maybe I should probably elaborate on one of the tools I like to use when analysing certain topics. I call this particular tool the ask the alien troglodyte.
In order to attempt realising the nature of reality objectively, I take given propositions and then ask whether a fictional alien troglodyte (who has never interacted with humans) would reach the same conclusion. Let us assume that this alien troglodyte has had one of these experiences. I take it as a given that it would never conclude Jesus or Allah or Thor or anything like that since those are conceptions it has never heard of nor been exposed to. But, assuming this alien troglodyte has the same capacity for human thought and experience, it may be quite prone to the anthropomorphising that we humans often do. It is not unreasonable to believe that such a creature could conclude the existence of a universal consciousness, but it is also not unreasonable to attribute that conclusion to the inherent anthropomorphising that comes with the human thought process. In the absence of such tendencies to anthropomorphise the conclusion of consciousness becomes less likely.
So where am I going with this? By using thought experiments like the above I come to the realisation that the human thought process, in and of itself, can readily conclude a concept that may be termed god independently of whether such a thing coincides with reality. The only question that remains is to answer what is the catalyst for such experiences. And it is here that the source for the interpretational bias becomes clear. The theological culture (or lack thereof I suppose, but I use this term very broadly here) that precipitates such experiences give those experiences their interpretation. This is why I put forward the charge of interpretational bias. Any conclusion or supposition that does not directly and unambiguously follow from an experience is interpretation. Think about it.
This would be somewhat more believable if the selection process didnt choose on the basis of interpretation. I believe this point regarding the tautological nature of the selection process has been well made in previous comments.
And pointing out an entire belief system that has been ignored for consideration doesnt show this .how exactly??
I tend not to ignore points that have direct relevance to the crux of a discussion.
Only if you start culling on the basis of interpretation again. In which case the conclusion is, for all the reasons pointed out previously, a meaningless tautology.
I would have thought this was obviously wrong. But not so obvious apparently.
I have actually. They are part of the interpretational selection that I have been objecting to all this time
Pretty much, although it is more of an extrapolation than an interpretation in some ways.
This doesnt really wash with me, and goes back to something Ive discussed with PureX earlier in this thread. Different people may hold different opinions, but when those opinions are compared against reality they may not prove to be equally valid. Some opinions can, however, be both true and opposite (eg: glass half full and glass half empty). Since this topic is whether the mystic experience constitutes evidence for this dramatically different perspective the actual truth value of this perspective doesnt actually matter.
No. It is exactly the same point Ive been making since post one applied to the context you brought up.
I dont believe I have told you the reason why I reached the conclusion I have. The support I provided for that conclusion were for the purposes of discussion. If you wanted to know original source for my conclusion then youd pretty much have to live my life.
Hard to say but I wouldnt hold your breath on it. Until the CoS goes down the FreeZone will remain amorphous and disjointed. The fact that some high ranking defectors from the CoS led by Marty Rathburn are trying to personal army the FreeZoners into taking down the CoS probably doesnt help matters. So much fun with a full scale war being fought away from public eyes.Will the information from the conference on the west coast be made available publicly?
Greetings friend nonbeliever_92. How do you define "purely subjective"? If memory serves, there is an epistemology that separates subjective experience that is totally within the subject versus one that has an origination from some external source in order to deal with its theories of knowledge. For example, the taste of honey is a subjective experience that would have an external tie in that the honey comes from external sources. Does that come into play in your thinking here?Purely subjective experiences cannot be held as viable evidence for anything. .......
[FONT="][FONT="]Yes, from the perspective of Oneness they are all valid and necessary, and this includes your view of atheism. It is valid and necessary for you at the present moment; it is wonderful as long as it does no harm to others. [/FONT][FONT="]From Oneness, all is God, God is in all, and all is in God. This does not mean that harming others and doing destruction should be condoned, not be controlled and prevented as is possible. Do not be disconcerted. Oneness is a more powerful and rewarding view to all than could be possible to put into words in this thread.[/FONT]
[FONT="]God really is the best term that applies here, Commoner; at least from the nondual perspective. God is not a ‘thing’ within the universe alongside other things and the terms “anything” or “something” cannot be used to point to the same reality. Perhaps a closer look at another term used to point to the same reality will help clarify - one of those terms that really didn’t say anything to you. [/FONT][FONT="]One set of terms seemingly of increasing popularity that is considered synonymous with God is being-itself, the ground of being and the power of being. They are meant to point to the foundation of what is and to the sustaining power and substance of all that exists. The foundation is not only the source for the things that are, but also for all the categories of finitude – space, time, cause and effect, substance, etc. – that limit things. As the source for them, it is not contained totally within them and transcends existence. [/FONT]
[FONT="]What is the point here, Commoner? Hasn’t it been indicated that the Mystic Experience has come to us from over 2000 years ago? Thank you for agreeing that it is possible and indicating that consciousness has not changed.[/FONT]
[FONT="]Good one. How does one know that the Mystic Experience is mystical? Because it is in the title? Haha. Seriously, you in your post below, and Copernicus as well, seem not to be able to distinguish between the Mystic Experience and a psychotic experience. From my view the psychotic person has a degree of ‘loss of touch’ with finite reality and the mystic never loses touch with finite reality. Of course from your perspective, one realizes that if one proposes ‘God Is’ you must consider it a loss of touch with reality. [/FONT][FONT="] If you are sincere on this though, we could discuss it further, but permit me to continue on the Mystic Experience [/FONT]
[FONT="][/FONT][FONT="]This is a most excellent question, Commoner. Your question gets to the heart of the Mystic Experience itself because the experience is God; God is the experience. The Experience itself is actually ineffable in that it really [FONT="]cannot be communicated, or apprehended by any other means than direct experience. It is a direct affect and effect in the awareness of consciousness and different from any other experience presenting a different way of experiential knowing. It is above space and time and beyond subject/object structure or processes. The Experience (that also might be called awakening and other terms) involves a direct shift of perspective and sense of self into nondual Oneness. And, what is written here are only conceptualizations that point to the Experience. Most who are smarter and wiser do not attempt to describe the Experience to others except perhaps in wise paradoxes (view of the same from the nondual and the dual perspectives), metaphors, parables, myths, etc. See, the problem here is trying to conceptualize from the nondual perspective into the finite dualistic perspective so that others with conventional perspectives can capture a glimpse.[/FONT][/FONT]
[FONT="]Another set of most excellent questions, Comoner. You can add omnipotent and omnipresent. Also, how could someone come up with ‘love your neighbor as yourself, love your enemies, or the Kingdom of Heaven is within you’ if they were human (which you have to assume). At one time these too were puzzlement to me along with the many sayings around the world from awakened ones like in Taoism ‘the 10000 things and I are one.’ The Experience gives understanding to them all. For examples: using the concept ground and power of being, Omnipresent is readily understood, right?; omnipotent, or all powerful, is seen as all of the power in the universe, in its source and sustenance; and to explain omniscience, explained for the dualistic mind, God contains all minds and all ways of knowing in the universe.[/FONT]
[FONT="]We only explain within our capabilities and there is never an intention of being vague and undefining to avoid being invalidated. [/FONT]
[FONT="]More excellent ones. The ‘transformation’ comes first and is often sudden and then one must figure out what happened. The conceptualization comes afterwards. Concerning your last question, the transformation is part of the experience so if the experience is the same how could it be without this attribute?[/FONT]
Except, of course, when they're objective.Love, anger, any emotion or experience really is subjective.
We experience "the way our brains work," so to claim that experiences are a result of "the way our brains work" is tautology.I believe you were trying to point out that there is a special significance in the "mystic experience" because of its consistency throughout history and cultures. I simply pointed out, that our experiences (those based on actual events and also those we consider delusional or imaginary) are consistent because of the way our brains work and because that has not changed for many thousands of years. So you can't draw any more significance on that basis as you can from myths, mental illnesses, our affinity for sweet food or our fear of the dark. They are equally (in)significant.
So what is "God" that it isn't this? How are you distinguishing between the mystic experience and "God"?Well, the truth is, from your description of it, the "mystic experience" does not differ from a psychotic event, so how could I distinguish one from the other. If you describe a car to me and claim it's something else, I'll still think you were describing a car, until you point out the difference. I really don't think you've done that.
It's not that I necesarrily find the concept of "god" absurd, it's the claim that the thing you're describing is somehow indicative of "god" that I find absurd. Just as I don't find a "car" or a "plane" absurd - but if you describe a car and claim it's a plane, I'll certainly have a problem with that.
Physicist Erwin Schrödinger also knows there's a black hole in the middle of the room, but people don't question his sanity (just the opposite).A schizophrenic knows there is a black hole in the middle of the room, even though he might be a physics professor who also knows that it's completely impossible. Our minds play tricks on us, it's not enough to be convinced of something - we must also have a rational, objective reason in order to claim something as truth - even if we're only trying to "convince" ourselves of that truth.
So basically the strength of your argument against the argument for the experience is "I can imagine what it's like and imagine how it's not justified."But, unlike you, I understand (or, I can imagine) how someone came up with it - that's easy. But if I believe that someone was really, honestly convinced by it and that this conviction came from an experience - I can't imagine what kind of an experience that could be. I can imagine a lot of experiences that would, in my mind, not have justified the claim. For instance (going back to omniscience) - if a being were to appear infront of me and accurately predict events in my past in in my future (something really specific), I might interpret that as the being having some sort of knowledge that goes beyond my own. But that would not even scratch the surface of "omniscience". In order for someone to make that kind of a claim and to be justified in making it, he would have to be omniscient himself - in order to know exactly what the being is capable of knowing, the extent of it, etc. And I have yet to find someone who can claim that. And so it is with all "extravagant" attributes of god.
Gwynnie has a tough time superceding Deist and Pantheistic notions of "God." Gwynnie superceding a personal "God" or "god" is fairly easy to do, but when one's conception of "God" amounts to little or nothing more than the totality of reality, then it becomes "problematic" to assume that there is something greater. Exactly what exists that is greater than all that exists?
And I would be careful about how you use "Gwynnie" as the same thing can be said about anything which has very little evidence beyond interpretation. I can insert Gwynnie in just beyond Big Bang since we have no way of comprehending anything that happens at the moment of the Big Bang (assuming the Big Bang even happened). Cosmology is a very difficult and time consuming discipline that is as much art and philosophy as it is science. Progress in this field will be tiring, taxing, and trying (not necessarily in that order) and will require constant revision across the inexorable progress of time.
MTF
We experience "the way our brains work," so to claim that experiences are a result of "the way our brains work" is tautology.
So what is "God" that it isn't this? How are you distinguishing between the mystic experience and "God"?
Physicist Erwin Schrödinger also knows there's a black hole in the middle of the room, but people don't question his sanity (just the opposite).
So basically the strength of your argument against the argument for the experience is "I can imagine what it's like and imagine how it's not justified."
Ultimately, with practice, the mystic is omnisicence itself:
"There is nothing that Buddha does not know. Because he has awakened from the sleep of ignorance and has removed all obstructions from his mind, he knows everything of the past, present, and future, directly and simultaneously."
Oh, what is greater than all? Expectation.
Can god create a rock he cannot lift? If the believer "expects" he can, god cannot lift his big ol' rock. If the believer "expects" he cannot, god will pull an Atlas. God doesn't have to be omniscient to be god, he just has to be smarter than us.
There are several threads on which people have been arguing about the "evidence" or lack thereof of the existence of "God". These threads were not started with this subject in mind, so I'm starting a new thread to keep them from being sidetracked.
Keep in mind that evidence is not proof. For example, the fact that Bob could have left work unnoticed and killed his wife, and then returned to work, resulting in his fellow workers claiming that he was on the job all day is not proof that Bob killed his wife. It is evidence, however, in that it provides a reasonable possibility.
Also, let's keep this a polite and civil discussion/debate. Your posts will be ignored, otherwise.
I will begin the discussion with a few posts from these other threads:
Sure ...
1. The idea of God