Originally Posted by
sincerly
Agreed, But did you analyse and understand the views of Matthew and Luke in recording the same event.? They are in agreement. Just from a "different angle"/wording.
Luke and Matthew tell of 2 completely different birth myths of Jesus.
Definitely different angles, different details. And let's not forget - 2 completely different genealogies. And it is more than just different wordings, the settings are different.
Everything other settings/details are different.
In Luke, the setting was one of peaceful: no star, no 3 kings/magi, no massacre, no exile to Egypt. And Herod is barely mentioned.
While in Matthew's, there are stable or manger, no shepherds, no procession of angels. And the census and governorship took place in the wrong time (Qurinius didn't become governor of Syria and census in Judaea, until 6 CE or AD 6, when Judaea officially became a Roman province).
There are only 2 things both gospels have in common: Jesus was a son of Mary, and Jesus was born in Bethlehem.
Hi Gnostic, my comment above was concerning what was in common with the announcement to Mary of the Birth of Jesus and in conjunction with the prophesied Isa.7:14 accounting. The records of such were seen in Matthew's and Luke's Gospels.
Luke's Accounting of the Life and teachings of Jesus Christ begins with these words1:1-4), "Forasmuch
as many have taken in hand to set forth in order a declaration of those things which are most surely believed among us, Even as they delivered them unto us, which from the beginning were eyewitnesses, and ministers of the word; It seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write unto thee in order, most excellent Theophilus, That thou mightest know the certainty of those things, wherein thou hast been instructed. "
Each writer presented the Narrative(biography) in their own words and started
the narrative at different points in the life and setting which impressed them just as do writers of today.
John wrote at the end of his "Gospel"(20:30-31), "and many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name."
Also, (21:25), "And there are also many other things which Jesus did, the which, if they should be written every one, I suppose that even the world itself could not contain the books that should be written. Amen. "
Where would you have entered into writing about the life and teachings and events surrounding Jesus Christ.?? Luke and Matthew started giving the facts as the life and dealings with the people and their needs to know was determined by Peoples who would be reading their accounts.
You are "cherry-picking"--- The what isn't expressed by one or the other---and basing "myth" on such.
The Scriptures were given to instruct GOD'S People in the correct relationship one should have to "their GOD" and to "their neighbor"; And in warnings of back-slidings as well as prophecies.
Luke and Matthew tell of 2 completely different birth myths of Jesus.......
I really don't give a flying crap about the Holy Ghost or Gabriel, they are completely irrelevant to this thread......
Unless you have a change of heart, you will not be able to see that the Bible is From GOD and that the participants are real.
And you're completely wrong. You have completely ignored chapter 7 (Isaiah).
If one verse (14) is about the messiah and Jesus, then logically the whole chapter should be about the messiah and Jesus. The only explanation to this, Matthew misquoted, misused and misinterpreted 7:14.
Only a fool would ignored 7:1-17 and Isaiah 8:1-18. And Mathew is either a fool or liar...or both.[/quote]
No! I have dealt with the prophecy of Isa. 7:14 and left it about 750 years in the past from the scene described/given in Matthew1:18-25; and Luke 126-38---which are the fulfillment of it.
Gen.3:15 is a single verse which is prophesied/referring to this same topic---the seed of woman/birth of Jesus Christ---neither is His name mentioned nor does the rest of the Chapter give any details. Therefore, your assumption is erroneous.
Yes, the scriptures do speak of foolish ones, (Ps.14:1; 53:1), "The fool hath said in his heart, [There is] no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, [there is] none that doeth good. "
If Gabriel was really involved with quoting Isaiah 7:14, then why did Gabriel used the Greek Septuagint, instead of the original Hebrew when quoting?
You would think that people being Hebrews, Jews, Israelites or Judaeans, the angel would have and should decency to have spoken in Hebrew instead of Greek, because that's where Matthew 1:23 comes from; it used the Greek word parthenos "virgin" instead of the original Hebrew almah "young woman", and Isaiah was originally composed in Hebrew, not Greek.
Gnostic, you are desperately trying to build straw-men with no foundation. The NT was written in the Greek. The people had been subject to the Grecian Empire prior to the that/Now Roman Empire.
I do not believe you will find in the OT usage of "almah" any passages which refer to other than a female who had NOT had sex.---therefore, "virgin".
If Jesus is really identified as the son in Isaiah 7:14, then answer the following questions:
- How do Jesus is related in the event of Isaiah 7:1-12? (Jerusalem was under siege, according to Isaiah 1:1.)
- How do Jesus fit in, saving Judah from Israel and Aram? (The sign that Assyria will save Judah.)
- What do Jesus have to do with the King of Assyria?
- Why do you ignore Ahaz, Pekah and Rezin?
- Why do you ignore the sign being fulfilled in 8:18?
- If Jesus is the Redeemer or Saviour that you believed him to be and the one who was herald in Isaiah 7:14, then why didn't Jesus save Judah.
You tends to ignore these questions (from my past replies). And that you've ignored these points and questions in the past, you are only believing what you have read, and not understanding what are really there, right in front of your face.
Gnostic, a prophecy denotes something in the future. What you are ignoring is that Isaiah's wife was to give birth to the " son" referred to in Isa.8+. Also, King Ahaz was in rebellion to the word of GOD. Why shouldn't GOD remind a rebellious king that HIS "planned seed" would bring about "HIS Purposes"?
History acknowledges that GOD'S Prophecies are SURE.
Again, Immanuel is not Mahershalalhashbaz.
"Immanuel" was born hundreds of years after "Mahershalalhashbaz. "