stvdv
Veteran Member
I think Jesus transcended from seeing God outside himself into being aware that God is within [I and My Father are ONE]What did Jesus mean when he cried out, "My God! My God! Why have you forsaken me"?
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I think Jesus transcended from seeing God outside himself into being aware that God is within [I and My Father are ONE]What did Jesus mean when he cried out, "My God! My God! Why have you forsaken me"?
Still to appease God, correct? If not, then who was appeased when the human sacrifice of Jesus was accomplished?I think it may be a mistake to say that God required a sacrifice...
and possibly more accurate to say that the people required a sacrifice.
God created life. Who are we to kill the life God created and offer that to God. That is so not-logical.Still to appease God, correct? If not, then who was appeased when the human sacrifice of Jesus was accomplished?
Then who did the sacrifice of Jesus appease?God created life. Who are we to kill the life God created and offer that to God. That is so not-logical.
I give you an apple and then you offer the apple to me to appease me. This is foolish. I think the best to appease God is "Hurt Never" and "Love All". Killing to appease God is ....
Jesus was sinless up until the point that he bore the sin of the world to His death--and for those few moments, He WAS separated from God. But just for those few moments before His death. Then He was free of the sin again.
They say "Jesus died for our sins"Then who did the sacrifice of Jesus appease?
Put another way: from what direction did we face consequences if Jesus were NOT sacrificed?
I actually have a hard time rationally accepting that. If he was "tempted", the only way that could happen is if there was something in him which "fell short of the mark", or "sin". He could not be "like us" if he was not "like us." There would be nothing we could aspire to.Jesus was sinless up until the point that he bore the sin of the world to His death--and for those few moments, He WAS separated from God. But just for those few moments before His death. Then He was free of the sin again.
Jesus was sinless up until the point that he bore the sin of the world to His death--and for those few moments, He WAS separated from God. But just for those few moments before His death. Then He was free of the sin again.
Jesus show me how you overcame.... sin?
I agree most with the interpretation of this text being that Christ was simply "amazed" by the experience he was enduring — the vicarious suffering for human guilt.What did Jesus mean when he cried out, "My God! My God! Why have you forsaken me"?
I actually have a hard time rationally accepting that. If he was "tempted", the only way that could happen is if there was something in him which "fell short of the mark", or "sin". He could not be "like us" if he was not "like us." There would be nothing we could aspire to.
Like Alan Watts said, "They kicked Jesus upstairs." And that to me makes him not a man at all that anyone can relate to. You? Can you relate to that? Prayer, "Jesus show me how you overcame.... sin? Oh, sorry, you're not like us having to do that yourself. I guess I can't relate, since you're unique." The way I see it, they can't have it both ways. He either was like us, or not like us.
Jesus "was made sin for us", not a sinner for us. No sinner can redeem other sinners, what himself. But only God, and Jesus was God, God who created us, has or IS the Power to let Himself be "made sin for us" to OBLITERATE OUR SIN IN HIMSELF, because He not only has "Power to lay down My Life", but even more, "Power to take up My Life" and "IN HIM", our life "TOGETHER WITH CHRIST".
For no moment became Jesus Christ a sinner, the actor of sin, for that moment alone would have been the repetition of Adam and Eve's FATAL MOMENT. But Jesus became the Subjected under sin, under our sin, which was placed BY US "upon Him" and "made, Him, sin for us", for "us" who ACTED the sin so that GOD The Righteous could declare "US", the "sinners", the murderers of GOD, righteous.
You're entitled to your belief, but I'm not quite certain what you mean, and I don't think you understand the "Jewishness" of the scripture Jesus was quoting.
This is a quote from Jeffrey Holland who is an LDS Apostle. It says it better than I did:
... I testify that He did please His Father perfectly and that a perfect Father did not forsake His Son in that hour. Indeed, it is my personal belief that in all of Christ’s mortal ministry the Father may never have been closer to His Son than in these agonizing final moments of suffering. Nevertheless, that the supreme sacrifice of His Son might be as complete as it was voluntary and solitary, the Father briefly withdrew from Jesus the comfort of His Spirit, the support of His personal presence. It was required, indeed it was central to the significance of the Atonement, that this perfect Son who had never spoken ill nor done wrong nor touched an unclean thing had to know how the rest of humankind—us, all of us—would feel when we did commit such sins. For His Atonement to be infinite and eternal, He had to feel what it was like to die not only physically but spiritually, to sense what it was like to have the divine Spirit withdraw, leaving one feeling totally, abjectly, hopelessly alone.
I understand that Jesus was quoting a scripture, but the above describes in what sense the Father withdrew support from his son.
He said it because people want to go to heaven but it's the trip that's not so awesome.
Jesus became the Subjected under sin, under our sin, which was placed BY US "upon Him" and "made, Him, sin for us", for "us" who ACTED the sin so that GOD The Righteous could declare "US", the "sinners", the murderers of GOD, righteous.
The only salvation from evil is repentance. Both Jesus and John the Baptist taught that. No person or animal can die for your lack of repentance--it's a pagan idea.Yes no of course, 'our sin, which was placed BY US "upon Him"' is not the whole truth because Jesus took our sin upon Himself, Himself!
He was quoting the start of the 22nd Psalms. As it was explained to me by a Rabbi it was the custom of the Hebrews to quote the start of the a Psalm in lieu of reciting the entire chapter.
why wouldn't he be saying those words?Yes Psalm 22 begins with David's petitions....but why would Jesus be quoting those words?
As @Hockeycowboy has said, Jesus had enjoyed his Father's protection and blessing for the whole of his existence....but in this final day as a human, as his life was ebbing away, Jesus felt his Father withdraw his spirit in order for his son to pay the ultimate price for mankind. He had to allow his son to die.
Remember Abraham's willingness to offer his precious son?....This is a human illustration of what it was like for God to willingly offer his son's life to pay for what Adam did to his children. It would have been a very difficult thing for both Father and son to do, but necessary for God's law to be carried out.
If you understand the role of a redeemer in Israel, it helps in our understanding of what Jesus did to pay our debt.
See Ransom — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY
Sin as an object is...... normal.Yes no of course, 'our sin, which was placed BY US "upon Him"' is not the whole truth because Jesus took our sin upon Himself, Himself!