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Name of Jehovah in new testament

Oeste

Well-Known Member
I think someone once said that a rose by any other name would still smell like a rose. So why the worry about a name? YHWH or Yahweh or Jehovah or something else. So what? As long as you worship God, does it really matter what name you use? People worry about the most foolish of things and want to condemn someone else because of a different name for God or Jehovah, or whoever.

Just as uttering "Open Sesame" swung wide the door and allowed Ali Baba access to the treasure within the cave, the Watchtower appears to treat uttering "Jehovah" as their door opener to the Kingdom of God. It doesn't get you inside (nothing does, but slavish obedience to every command and whim of the Governing Board gives you a shot), but it does seem (from their perspective) a bare minimal that activates the right door lights, gears and machinery.

Like you, I've never understood the insistence on substituting Lord with a derived 16th century transliteration.
 

Deeje

Avid Bible Student
Premium Member
There are those who propose that they are the witnesses for Jehovah God and only they are in the process of restoring His name to its’ rightful place. I find it interesting that the name Jehovah is mentioned some 1,500 times in the Old Testament but zero times in the New Testament. It has never, ever, been found in any New Testament manuscript even in the original language going back as far as the manuscripts dated 125.C.E. The name ‘Jehovah’ should be all over the New Testament. Does that mean that they only witnesses for the Old Testament? If Christ came to make His Father’s name known, why is His Father’s name so absent? Jesus Christ came to represent His Father and to die in His name. Did He fail in that mission? Your thoughts? Certainty for eternity.

What is interesting is that when the Jews began to refrain from uttering the divine name, but kept it in their written text, the English translators not only followed the Jewish tradition, but removed the divine name almost altogether, substituting the title "Adonai" (Lord) instead of the tetragrammaton. They distinguished the places where the substitution had taken place with an upper case rendering of "the LORD" to indicate where God's name was originally used. References to "the Lord Jesus" were not capitalized.

In the Greek translation the word Kyrios (LORD) was used as a substitute for the divine name, though in the most ancient manuscript fragments, the tetragrammaton appears in Hebrew characters in the Greek text.

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1001061205

When Jesus or the apostles quoted from OT scripture, they would have known that the divine name was in the Jewish text.
For example, Jesus read from the scroll of Isaiah aloud in the synagogue. (Luke 4:17-21)

This is what he read....from the Tanach. (Isaiah 61:1-2)

"The spirit of the Lord God was upon me, since the Lord anointed me to bring tidings to the humble, He sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to declare freedom for the captives, and for the prisoners to free from captivity.
אר֛וּחַ אֲדֹנָ֥י יֱהֹוִ֖ה עָלָ֑י יַ֡עַן מָשַׁח֩ יְהֹוָ֨ה אֹתִ֜י לְבַשֵּׂ֣ר עֲנָוִ֗ים שְׁלָחַ֙נִי֙ לַֽחֲבֹ֣שׁ לְנִשְׁבְּרֵי־לֵ֔ב לִקְרֹ֚א לִשְׁבוּיִם֙ דְּר֔וֹר וְלַֽאֲסוּרִ֖ים פְּקַח־קֽוֹחַ:

2To declare a year of acceptance for the Lord and a day of vengeance for our God, to console all mourners.
בלִקְרֹ֚א שְׁנַת־רָצוֹן֙ לַֽיהֹוָ֔ה וְי֥וֹם נָקָ֖ם לֵֽאלֹהֵ֑ינוּ לְנַחֵ֖ם כָּל־אֲבֵלִֽים:


When Jesus read from the scroll, do we imagine that he failed to use God's name when he said he had come to make God's name known to his people?

When the devil tempted him on three occasions, Jesus replied with "It is written" and then proceeded to quote the scriptures. (Luke 4:1-13)

Deuteronomy 8:3 was the first one....
...."in order to make you know that man does not live by bread alone but man lives by every expression from Jehovah’s mouth."

The second he replied with Deuteronomy 10:20..."Jehovah your God you should fear, him you should serve, to him you should cling, and by his name you should swear."

The third time it was Deuteronomy 6:16...."You must not put Jehovah your God to the test the way you put him to the test at Masʹsah."

In each quotation, the divine name was present. That name should have been included in NT scripture whenever there was a quotation from the Hebrew scriptures containing the tetragrammaton.

It occurs me that perhaps God did not stop the Jews from losing their connection to his name because, as his people, Jehovah's name was upon them. When they went astray, it brought reproach on the name of their God.
IMO, he probably allowed his name to be removed to show his displeasure with what was happening in Judaism. It was justified as it turned out, because the Jews did to Jesus what they had always done to the prophets God sent to them. (Matthew 23:37-39)

Jesus came to reacquaint Israel with their God, but sadly the majority of them did not want him back. They preferred this nameless God to the one Jesus was reintroducing to them. It was no different when they turned to Baal worship in the past. The name "Baal" means "Lord".

The Gentiles however, would accept Jesus as Messiah....and look what Peter said....

In Acts 15:14...."Symʹe·on (Peter) has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name."

The name rejected by the Jewish nation would now be taken up with pride by non-Jewish Christians. God's illustrious name was, and always will be associated with his people. It is my belief that only when his people are actively doing his will that God allows them to bear his name......in this "time of the end", it is especially so.

 
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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
JHVH translated is Jehovah, with vowels noted.

When you're dealing with tranliteration, the name has to be noted whether the vowel signs are necessary to always conform, or, not, as in the instance of JHVH.

This is why both Yahweh, and Jehovah, are used to infer the same name, essentially. Now, actually, they are not 'the same', however, as a name, they are both names for presumably the same god.


The Bible translated into English, maintains usually the same system as the Hebrew, follows what 'God', means, and what 'Lord' means, textually. There is context involved with the word 'God', because it is a name, a name/title, and also a word, like when it is used 'false god', so forth.

So, there is no problem as to what the deific names and titles mean, when in the Bible.
 
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74x12

Well-Known Member
There are those who propose that they are the witnesses for Jehovah God and only they are in the process of restoring His name to its’ rightful place. I find it interesting that the name Jehovah is mentioned some 1,500 times in the Old Testament but zero times in the New Testament. It has never, ever, been found in any New Testament manuscript even in the original language going back as far as the manuscripts dated 125.C.E. The name ‘Jehovah’ should be all over the New Testament. Does that mean that they only witnesses for the Old Testament? If Christ came to make His Father’s name known, why is His Father’s name so absent? Jesus Christ came to represent His Father and to die in His name. Did He fail in that mission? Your thoughts? Certainty for eternity.
The scripture is clear we profess Jesus is Lord to the glory of the Father. Whoever wants to glorify the Father must call on the name of Jesus Christ. Jesus is the name of the Father manifest in the flesh. There is no other name given among men whereby we must be saved.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
I notice Jesus did not give his father a name. So maybe names are not that important as long as we worship God by any name.
Mal. 3:16..."Then they that feared Jehovah spake one with another; and Jehovah hearkened, and heard, and a book of remembrance was written before him, for them that feared Jehovah, and that thought upon his name." --American Standard Version

Jehovah's Word states differently.

When you read Psalms 110:1a, "The LORD said unto my Lord:", who is talking to who?
The ASV makes it clear...."Jehovah saith to my Lord,".
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Mal. 3:16..."Then they that feared Jehovah spake one with another; and Jehovah hearkened, and heard, and a book of remembrance was written before him, for them that feared Jehovah, and that thought upon his name." --American Standard Version

Jehovah's Word states differently.

When you read Psalms 110:1a, "The LORD said unto my Lord:", who is talking to who?
The ASV makes it clear...."Jehovah saith to my Lord,".
And who wrote the ASV and where did they translate it from? Do the early Greek or Latin versions say Jehovah? Humans make translations and can make mistakes or translate in a way that best serves their beliefs.
 
The scripture is clear we profess Jesus is Lord to the glory of the Father. Whoever wants to glorify the Father must call on the name of Jesus Christ. Jesus is the name of the Father manifest in the flesh. There is no other name given among men whereby we must be saved.
Absolutely right. You got it. certainty for eternity
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The scripture is clear we profess Jesus is Lord to the glory of the Father. Whoever wants to glorify the Father must call on the name of Jesus Christ. Jesus is the name of the Father manifest in the flesh. There is no other name given among men whereby we must be saved.
What is that name? How do we “call on” it? What’s that procedure? What does it mean to “call on [someone’s] name?” What do the biblical writers mean by that phrase? Do you know? Because I suspect that the name isn’t what many people think, and neither is the procedure involved.
 

74x12

Well-Known Member
What is that name? How do we “call on” it? What’s that procedure? What does it mean to “call on [someone’s] name?” What do the biblical writers mean by that phrase? Do you know? Because I suspect that the name isn’t what many people think, and neither is the procedure involved.
The name is clearly Jesus/Yeshua or Yehoshua. Yah's salvation.

The writers in the new Testament were of course referencing the prophecy of Joel about the end time when people would call on the name of YHVH. However the new Testament writers understood Jesus to be YHVH incarnate. So Jesus is the name that God chose for salvation. (Matthew 1:21, Acts 4:12)
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The name is clearly Jesus/Yeshua or Yehoshua. Yah's salvation.

The writers in the new Testament were of course referencing the prophecy of Joel about the end time when people would call on the name of YHVH. However the new Testament writers understood Jesus to be YHVH incarnate. So Jesus is the name that God chose for salvation. (Matthew 1:21, Acts 4:12)
You didn’t answer my questions. Plz read the post again and answer my questions, so I have an idea where you’re coming from.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
It ultimately goes back to Joel 2:32.
But that verse doesn’t answer my questions. What do the writers mean by “call on the name of the Lord?” What’s that procedure? What does it mean to “call on [someone’s] name?” The verse answers none of that, nor does the verse give a name. I can’t follow the injunction if I don’t know how.

Do you know the answers to these questions? How do you know them? Where did you get the information? Is the information reliable? And, if you don’t know, how can you use this non-information to bolster an argument, or, more important, to reach out to people in evangelism? Do you have answers, or is this just something you’ve been taught to regurgitate without knowing what it means?
 

74x12

Well-Known Member
But that verse doesn’t answer my questions. What do the writers mean by “call on the name of the Lord?” What’s that procedure? What does it mean to “call on [someone’s] name?” The verse answers none of that, nor does the verse give a name. I can’t follow the injunction if I don’t know how.

Do you know the answers to these questions? How do you know them? Where did you get the information? Is the information reliable? And, if you don’t know, how can you use this non-information to bolster an argument, or, more important, to reach out to people in evangelism? Do you have answers, or is this just something you’ve been taught to regurgitate without knowing what it means?
How hungry are you for God's truth? I love you but I want to know if you are sincerely seeking for more from God. Do you desire more? I feel the love of God for you even though I don't know you in person. I've prayed for you.

Blessed are they which do hunger and thirst after righteousness: for they shall be filled. (Matthew 5:6)
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
How hungry are you for God's truth? I love you but I want to know if you are sincerely seeking for more from God. Do you desire more? I feel the love of God for you even though I don't know you in person. I've prayed for you.

Blessed are they which do hunger and thirst after righteousness: for they shall be filled. (Matthew 5:6)
That didn’t answer my questions, either. Your concern is appreciated; I’d also appreciate answers.
 

74x12

Well-Known Member
That didn’t answer my questions, either. Your concern is appreciated; I’d also appreciate answers.
I do have some things to say about it. I'll try to post tomorrow. I want to give this sufficient response. I believe it's an important topic.
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
The name is clearly Jesus/Yeshua or Yehoshua. Yah's salvation.

The writers in the new Testament were of course referencing the prophecy of Joel about the end time when people would call on the name of YHVH. However the new Testament writers understood Jesus to be YHVH incarnate. So Jesus is the name that God chose for salvation. (Matthew 1:21, Acts 4:12)
No, Jesus is the name "given among men".

Who 'gave' it? His Father, Jehovah / Yahweh, the One who "sent His only-begotten Son" (John 3:16), who is "the only true God." - John 17:3.
The One who Jesus worshipped, as did the Jew Martha, btw. - John 20:17

I mean, it's so clear!
 

Neuropteron

Active Member
I find it interesting that the name Jehovah is mentioned some 1,500 times in the Old Testament but zero times in the New Testament. It has never, ever, been found in any New Testament manuscript even in the original language going back as far as the manuscripts dated 125.C.E. [...] Your thoughts? Certainty for eternity.

Revelation 19:1 mentions "Hallelujah"

'Hallel-lu-jah' is hebrew for 'praise Jah' where 'Jah' is an abbreviated form of the name 'Jaweh' or Jehovah in modern english. Thus the God of the Hebrews was the God of the 1st Century Christians also.

The hebrew names and places that contain the abbreviated form of the name such as the name 'John', which is 'Jehohanan' in Hebrew, means 'Jehovah has been gracious'. Hebrew names in the NT containing 'Jah/yah' refer to Jehovah.

More notably Jesus name (Heb. 'Jehoshua') means 'Salvation belongs to Jah.

Jesus quoted the Hebrew scriptures containing the divine name in the original text. When Jesus spoke at Matthew 4:4, 7, 10 he quoted Deuteronomy 8:3; 6:13,16 which, as rightly noted, does contain the divine name. There are hundreds of such occurences.

So the Old Testament original serves as a guide for modern translators to leave the name wherever it was quoted directly. (see further commentary on this translation topic by R.B Girdlestone)

So the question arises as to when and why God's revealed personal name was removed from such readings quoted by Jesus and the early disciples and substituted with the more obscure 'Kyrios' (Gr), 'Lord' as a title which is inpersonal and may be applied to many people and deities.

An original rendering of Jeremiah 23: 27 gives us one reason why.
 
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TransmutingSoul

One Planet, One People, Please!
Premium Member
There are those who propose that they are the witnesses for Jehovah God and only they are in the process of restoring His name to its’ rightful place. I find it interesting that the name Jehovah is mentioned some 1,500 times in the Old Testament but zero times in the New Testament. It has never, ever, been found in any New Testament manuscript even in the original language going back as far as the manuscripts dated 125.C.E. The name ‘Jehovah’ should be all over the New Testament. Does that mean that they only witnesses for the Old Testament? If Christ came to make His Father’s name known, why is His Father’s name so absent? Jesus Christ came to represent His Father and to die in His name. Did He fail in that mission? Your thoughts? Certainty for eternity.

The 'Glory of God', or 'Glory of the Lord' is Jehovah in the New Testament. It is Christs New name.

Peace be to you an all.
 

12jtartar

Active Member
Premium Member
There are those who propose that they are the witnesses for Jehovah God and only they are in the process of restoring His name to its’ rightful place. I find it interesting that the name Jehovah is mentioned some 1,500 times in the Old Testament but zero times in the New Testament. It has never, ever, been found in any New Testament manuscript even in the original language going back as far as the manuscripts dated 125.C.E. The name ‘Jehovah’ should be all over the New Testament. Does that mean that they only witnesses for the Old Testament? If Christ came to make His Father’s name known, why is His Father’s name so absent? Jesus Christ came to represent His Father and to die in His name. Did He fail in that mission? Your thoughts? Certainty for eternity.

Christ’s Prophet,
Most people always believed that no Greek Bible manuscripts had the Personal Proper Name Jehovah in them. Just recently several manuscripts were found that did have God’s Personal Name in them.
Think about this, the Bible says that Jesus made God’s Name known to his disciples, John 17:6,26. All Jews knew God’s Personal Name was Jehovah, and it is almost certain that when they copied Scriptures from the Hebrew Text, they would have copied God’s name as it was written in the Hebrew. When Christianity got it’s start all first century Christians would have used God’s Name, when teaching, and especially in prayers to the ONE true God.
Sometime after the first century started,the Jews, not Christians, started to believe that God’s Proper Name, Jehovah, was too sacred to pronounce with imperfect lips of sinners. They put marks in the edges of scrolls, to let the reader know he was not to read God’s Name,but to just use God or Lord.
This was a Jewish superstition, and should never have started, so there are several Bible translations that do use God’s Name in the Greek Scriptures.
Think!!! If God, Jehovah, had not wanted His name pronounced, would He have Inspired His Bible writers to put His name in the Hebrew Scriptures, almost 7,000 Times?!? Agape!!!
 

12jtartar

Active Member
Premium Member
Well said.
and didn't God say "I am what I am"

Jedster,
To most people it seems to make no difference what God’s name is, but to a Worshiper of Jehovah,it makes a great deal of difference. Since we love Jehovah and worship Him, we want to make sure which god we worship. There are many religions on earth and many have names of THEIR gods.
The name, Jehovah, means, He Causes to Become!! No other god or person can rightly use that name, because only Jehovah can make sure that His purposes are fulfilled, without exception, Isaiah 55:11. The term for God’s Name, I Am that I Am, is probably more accurately translated,I Am Who I Am!!!
Remember, out of all names that God could have chosen for Himself, He Chose Jehovah, and that is enough to make His chosen name Sacrosanct to His worshipers!!!
 
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