Prophet Jesus PBUH commanded people to be Muslim

[arthra]

But when Jesus perceived disbelief on their part, he said: Who will be my helpers in Allah's way? The disciples said: We are Allah's helpers: we believe in Allah, and bear thou witness that we are Mushlams/Muslims.

While Muslims may attempt to equate these words with 'Muslims" as a religion it needs to be said that submitting to the will of God is simply that... All Prophets are submitted to the will of God.. this does not mean all believers have to be "Muslims" as a religion.

An alternate translation of Surih 3:52 has the following:

Muhammad Sarwar: When Jesus found them denying the truth, he said, "Who will help me in the cause of God?" The disciples replied, "We are the helpers of God. We believe in Him. Jesus, bear witness that we have submitted ourselves to His will."

 

[Parsimony]

I disagree with u.

Which part? The Quran not existing when Jesus was alive or what?

But u agree Mushlam and Muslim is same just like Shalom and Salam?

I've no idea, but a Muslim as defined as "a person who follows the Quran" certainly cannot be the meaning of the word in the Bible since, like I said before, the Quran didn't yet exist. If you want to define it simply as "submission to God", then that would still be valid but it could not be used as evidence that Jesus told people to follow the Quran, since no reference to made to the Quran in its definition.

We believe Muslim have nothing to do with Muhammad pbuh, and Muhammad pbuh didnt invent that.
Allah made the Mushlam/Muslim for his believers.

He made Muslims for believers? I thought Muslims are believers?

Allah swt told Abraham to submit, abraham said i submit to the Lord of the Worlds.
Jacob asked his sons what will they worship after his death, they said his God and the God of his forefathers and they will die as mushlams/muslims.

I see, so a person can be a Muslim without the Quran and without believing that Muhammad is a prophet. Neither existed back when Jacob died.

 

[Muffled]

By Him in whose Hands is my Soul, the command of Prophet Jesus pbuh reminds me of Noble Quran


133. Or were you witnesses when death approached Ya'qub (Jacob)? When he said unto his sons, "What will you worship after me?" They said, "We shall worship your Ilah (God - Allah), the Ilah (God) of your fathers, Ibrahim (Abraham), Isma'il (Ishmael), Ishaque (Isaac), One Ilah(God), and to Him we submit (in Islam)."

And


But when Jesus perceived disbelief on their part, he said: Who will be my helpers in Allah's way? The disciples said: We are Allah's helpers: we believe in Allah, and bear thou witness that we are Mushlams/Muslims.

Now look what Bible says:





Ein talmeed na'leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she'MUSHLAM yihyeh k'rabbo."

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Evidence from the English translation of Luke 6:40 that further prove that the word 'Muslim' was used by Jesus:

Luke 6:40 (KJV) The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (Darby)
The disciple is not above his teacher, but every one that is perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (Young's Literal Translation)
A disciple is not above his teacher, but every one perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (21st Century King James Version)
The disciple is not above his master, but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (American Standard Version)
The disciple is not above his teacher: but every one when he is perfected shall be as his teacher.



So to be like the teacher, we should become Mushlams/Muslims.

I believe I am a muslim not by religion but by the meaning of the word since I am a Christian.

 

[Muffled]

No, i mean Mushlam just means someone who submits to the will of Allah.

Jesus pbuh said i follow the will of God.
Thats what mushlam and muslim means.

I believe it does but that also means submitting to Jesus and the Paraclete which Muslims have not been doing and refuse to believe they should.

 

[Muffled]

The Luke wording of Mushlam is confirmed in Quran.
We believe Jesus taught his disciples and followers to be Mushlams.
No where does Jesus pbuh say to his disciples: Be Christosos/Christians.
The word Christians came to be used for the first time in ancient anatolia.


I have no problem calling myself Mushlam because it has the same roots as Muslim. Same words just like Shalom and Salam.

The first believers called themselves "followers of the Way." Jesus called Himself "the Way" so it makes sense. However what the world calls us has a tendency to stick.

 

[rosends]

OK, here's what I don't get:
First, I was told that Islam means "submission" so a Muslim is "one who submits."
Then I am told that the word "Muslim" is actually just a form of the Hebrew "Mushlam" which means "complete" "finished" or "perfected".
This word, Mushlam, never appears in the Hebrew bible (the closest version, Meshulam, appears about 10 times as a name, while meshalem, repay, appears once in the text, and also appears in certain daily prayers).
The Hebrew "source" is a translation INTO Hebrew from a text which itself is not so useful to me. So a translation chooses a word to mean something, and use say then that that word, because of its sound similarity is identical with a separate word and the connection becomes an imperative to convert?
No thanks.
And the Muhammed thing? That's great -- you seem to forget that names sometimes develop from words, you know, like the name "Meshulam". That means that Muhammed's parents gave him a name because they liked the word in the Hebrew, not that the Hebrew which predated his name was making reference to him. If I name my daughter "Gospella" that doesn't mean that the gospels reference my child when the word "gospel" is used.

 

[Terrywoodenpic]

Jesus did not command anyone to be anything, neither Muslim, Jew nor Christian.
Neither the Christian nor Muslim faith existed during his time on earth.
He taught us what it meant to love God and our fellow men.
Jesus gave us very few commands of any sort.
however he did institute the Eucharist and instructed that we should be baptised.
Both of these are found in the Didache which predates the Bible and the Quran.

He sent out his disciples to teach, heal and continue his work. Those that recieved those teachings called themselves Christian.

 

[Crypto2015]

I just gave u the evidence lol


Mushlam in hebrew bible

That's no evidence. The Qur'an was written 7 centuries after the death and resurrection of Jesus. Muhammad never made a single miracle, never healed a single sick person, and lived a life that wasn't holy. He is disqualified as a prophet virtually by everything he did or said. According to Moses' Law, Muhammad should have been stoned as a false prophet (Deuteronomy 18:20-22), since he uttered a lot of prophecies that never came true:

Sura 48:27 makes the following promise:

"Truly did Allah fulfill the vision for His Messenger. Ye shall enter the Sacred Mosque, IF ALLAH WILLS, with minds secure, heads shaved, hair cut short, and without fear. For He knew what ye knew not, and He granted, besides this, a speedy victory."

This verse was revealed in conjunction with the Muslims' failed attempt of entering Mecca to perform Tawaf (the ritual during Hajj of running between two mountains that was supposed to commemorate Hagar's fetching of water for Ishmael).

On their way to the Ka'bah, they were met with a Meccan deputation headed by Suhail b. Amr who forbade the Muslims from completing their journey. This meeting then led to the signing of the treaty of Hudaibiya.

and

Book 37, Number 4283:

Narrated Abdullah ibn Busr:

The Prophet (peace_be_upon_him) said: The time between the great war and the conquest of the city (Constantinople) will be six years, and the Dajjal (Antichrist) will come forth in the seventh.

Accordingly, Muslims conquered Jerusalem in 636 AD. Constantinople was taken over by Muslims in May 1453 AD. Yet the prophecy regarding Yathrib (Medina) being in ruins and Antichrist's advent to take place seven months after the conquest of Constantinople did not materialize. Based on the preceding traditions Antichrist was to appear in November 1453.

 

[Ouroboros]

so the existing Hebrew bible nowadays is from the Greek version? no make sense at all.

The verse you're quoting is from the New Twstament, which is written in Koine Greek. The Hebrew translation of the New Testament is translated from the Greek originals.

 

[arthra]

Crypto wrote above:

since he uttered a lot of prophecies that never came true:

Sura 48:27 makes the following promise:

"Truly did Allah fulfill the vision for His Messenger. Ye shall enter the Sacred Mosque, IF ALLAH WILLS, with minds secure, heads shaved, hair cut short, and without fear. For He knew what ye knew not, and He granted, besides this, a speedy victory."

This verse was revealed in conjunction with the Muslims' failed attempt of entering Mecca to perform Tawaf (the ritual during Hajj of running between two mountains that was supposed to commemorate Hagar's fetching of water for Ishmael).

On their way to the Ka'bah, they were met with a Meccan deputation headed by Suhail b. Amr who forbade the Muslims from completing their journey. This meeting then led to the signing of the treaty of Hudaibiya.

............................................................

The commentary I've read suggests it was fulfilled:

The treaty of Hudaybiya was concluded due to which he and his followers could enter, next year, the city of Makka and perform the pilgrimage with all the customary rites. The effect of the phrase inshallah was clearly visible when all those who accompanied the Holy Prophet in the journey to Makka in the year of the treaty of Hudaybiya were present next year in the house of Allah to perform the hajj.

and as Wikipedia has it:

The Treaty of Hudaybiyyah (Arabic: صلح الحديبية) was an important event that took place during the formation of Islam. It was a pivotal treaty between Muhammad, representing the state of Medina, and the Quraish tribe of Mecca in March 628 (corresponding to Dhu al-Qi'dah, 6 AH). It helped to decrease tension between the two cities, affirmed a 10-year peace, and authorized Muhammad's followers to return the following year in a peaceful pilgrimage, The First Pilgrimage.[1][2][3]

The "victory near at hand" refer to the conquest of Khaybar.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_Hudaybiyyah

 

[1AOA1]

If Islam, Judaism, and Christianity are the same practices, then they are the same. Words with the same definition are considered as the same. And if they are the same then the text of one shown to be accurate can be used as a "key" of sorts to read the others.

 

[use_your_brain]

The verse you're quoting is from the New Twstament, which is written in Koine Greek. The Hebrew translation of the New Testament is translated from the Greek originals.

Okay then, at least the verse mentions MUSLAM.

 

[use_your_brain]

Jesus did not command anyone to be anything, neither Muslim, Jew nor Christian.
Neither the Christian nor Muslim faith existed during his time on earth.
He taught us what it meant to love God and our fellow men.
Jesus gave us very few commands of any sort.
however he did institute the Eucharist and instructed that we should be baptised.
Both of these are found in the Didache which predates the Bible and the Quran.

He sent out his disciples to teach, heal and continue his work. Those that recieved those teachings called themselves Christian.

He commanded his disciples to be MUSLAM.

 

[use_your_brain]

OK, here's what I don't get:
First, I was told that Islam means "submission" so a Muslim is "one who submits."
Then I am told that the word "Muslim" is actually just a form of the Hebrew "Mushlam" which means "complete" "finished" or "perfected".
This word, Mushlam, never appears in the Hebrew bible (the closest version, Meshulam, appears about 10 times as a name, while meshalem, repay, appears once in the text, and also appears in certain daily prayers).
The Hebrew "source" is a translation INTO Hebrew from a text which itself is not so useful to me. So a translation chooses a word to mean something, and use say then that that word, because of its sound similarity is identical with a separate word and the connection becomes an imperative to convert?
No thanks.
And the Muhammed thing? That's great -- you seem to forget that names sometimes develop from words, you know, like the name "Meshulam". That means that Muhammed's parents gave him a name because they liked the word in the Hebrew, not that the Hebrew which predated his name was making reference to him. If I name my daughter "Gospella" that doesn't mean that the gospels reference my child when the word "gospel" is used.

This word appear in Luke 40.

 

[Terrywoodenpic]

He commanded his disciples to be MUSLAM.

As a joke that is not in the least funny.
It is a fiction.

 

[use_your_brain]

As a joke that is not in the least funny.
It is a fiction.

yes the Bible is a joke.

 

[LuisDantas]

Not a joke as such, but it sure is taken way too seriously way too often.

 

[Terrywoodenpic]

yes the Bible is a joke.

So why to you make false quotes from it as if they proved anything about "muslams"

 

[Terrywoodenpic]

What would you think about some one who said the Quran was a joke.

 

[Ouroboros]

Okay then, at least the verse mentions MUSLAM.

In the Hebrew translation, yes. Not in the Greek original.

Read this article about this subject: http://www.answering-islam.org/Responses/Ataie/jesus_muslim.htm

As you can see, the Bible also encourage fishermen to musliming their nets. That's that word in the Hebrew bible too, and in several other places as well. You're supposed to musliming brethren who has sinned.

All this being said, I don't see how Muslam is the same as Muslim or Islam any more than Mussolini and mussel and vanillin.