Buddha Dharma
Dharma Practitioner
Prove me wrong from the Bible.
I don't have to prove your inference wrong. You haven't demonstrated it is correct yet. You do that, and I'll conjure up the effort.
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Prove me wrong from the Bible.
Anyone who gives a message from God is considered a prophet. In any case I don't even need to prove that David is a prophet. Even though it's obvious.I don't have to prove your inference wrong. You haven't demonstrated it is correct yet. You do that, and I'll conjure up the effort.
Yes it is poetry but still prophetic ... in fact many of the prophecies of the likes of Isaiah are poetic in the Hebrew.Yes because of course if David is going to be a prophet, it must be that Christ is what he's prophesying about. That is exactly why I don't accept the Christian understanding of David. Psalms is poetry. You honestly think it equates to prophecy?
Modern day Rabbinic Judaism is not Israel or Judah as we find in the old testament, it is a sect from the southern kingdom that went astray, and was cut off and cursed.It's enough for me that the Jews, the authors of these scriptures- say David is not a prophet.
No they don't, here look at the different translations.They presume it always means virgin.
You're not questioning it tho, and when given vast amounts of info about a more logical understanding, you've ignored it; so isn't that a bit hypocritical?Only to get it's adherents to question their stances on the Hebrew Bible.
We can prove it is prophetic; yet honestly beginning to think you've just got an agenda, and thus are not listening.You honestly think it equates to prophecy?
Deuteronomy was not however without the concession that they would be rescued from the place to which they would be exiled(Deuteronomy 30:1-6). So it wasn't a curse with no remedy. God is omniscient; he knew the future.placed the Curse on them in advanced, because they'd go opposite (Leviticus 26, Deuteronomy 28)
Because nowhere is 'saving' described as part of the messianic job description. The moshiach is going to be a formidable teacher and king who will unite the people and bring them to godliness. He isn't here to 'save' anything.I'm asking you to look one step further and explain how a man is able to save.
The passages in Hoshea are HaShem chastising those people for their transgressions and asking them to repent. In case you aren't aware, this happens all over the prophets, with HaShem in the end telling them that He will not reject them if they return to Him. This is pretty standard stuff.The issue is given a time frame in Hosea 5:15 and Hosea 6:1-3. Israel and Judah experience God's 'tearing'. The Lord then returns to his place for two days 'till they acknowledge their offence'.
That is if they accept the Lord, and since YHVH Elohim became Yeshua Elohim (H3444 + H1961 = Exodus 15:2-3, Psalms 118:14-21, Isaiah 12:2), they still reject their Lord.Deuteronomy was not however without the concession that they would be rescued from the place to which they would be exiled(Deuteronomy 30:1-6).
Isaiah 2:4 He will judge between the nations, and will decide concerning many peoples; and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruning hooks. Nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.Because nowhere is 'saving' described as part of the messianic job description.
See all this name objectification is why people get confused... As just posting above, El (God) became YHVH (Lord to Be), who became Yehoshua (Lord that Saves).with HaShem in the end telling them that he will not reject them if they return to Him.
Yes, HaShem will use the moshiach; he won't be the moshiach. The very idea that G-d should come to earth as a man and be worshipped is a form of idolatry that is wholly rejected by Jews and Noahides.The scriptures state that the power to save comes from the Lord above, through his anointed Messiah, to his people. How can the people be saved if they reject the Lord's anointed?
Hoshea 5 isn't a messianic passage, it's describing the sins of the people of Ephraim and Israel and Judah. The L-rd is chastising Ephraim for going to the Assyrian King for help and for the other tribes begetting strange children. G-d is asking them to return to Him and repent. This is not messianic. The following passages are the words of the people saying how they should return and repent.Hosea (5:14,15; 6:1-3) makes it clear that he did come, and that he returned 'to his place'. But, after two thousand years (two days) the scripture says that Israel will be revived, and in the third day 'he will raise us up'.
Isaiah 53 isn't messianic either; this is talking about Israel.Isaiah 53:3, 'He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not.'
You're right that Am Israel rejected your false lord.The nation of Israel rejected the Lord (Psalm 110:1) at his first coming. Will they accept him at the second?
I see what you are saying, Wiz, but there is a specific Christian interpretation of the word 'save' which I am rejecting. Much of the time, when they say save, they seem to mean something slightly different as in 'save you from your sin'. The moshiach won't take your sins away; HaShem will.Isaiah 2:4 He will judge between the nations, and will decide concerning many peoples; and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruning hooks. Nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
Agree with rejecting the idea that the Messiah had to be murdered, so we can get closer to God.there is a specific Christian interpretation of the word 'save' which I am rejecting. Much of the time, when they say save, they seem to mean something slightly different as in 'save you from your sin'.
They're the same thing, Hashem means YHVH Elohim who became Yeshua Elohim...The moshiach won't take your sins away; HaShem will.
It's worth noting that the words in Hebrew for 'as a lion' and 'digging' ('piercing') appear to the eye to be very similar, and might easily be confused in transcription.
It's actually the insertion of 'as a lion' that causes problems with the context. Once this is done, additional words have to be added to give clarity and meaning to the sentence.
In the Tanakh translation issued by the Jewish Publication Society, the reading is 'Dogs surround me; a pack of evil ones closes in on me, like lions [they maul] my hands and feet.' The words [they maul] have been added to provide meaning! But even then the passage is muddled. Why apply a simile about lions to a pack of dogs?
So who, given the context of Psalm 22, is most likely to have corrupted the text, unintentionally or not?
I guess you can say it was exclusively about Solomon, even though Solomon's reign didn't last forever(2 Sam. 7:16, Jer 22:28-30,37:1). That certainly makes sense, especially given the condition of 1 Chr. 28:6-7, that it would be everlasting(2Sa 23:5).
That it was not prophetic when written does not exclude the fact that it was understood by those Jews who believed in Jesus and searched their Scripture for the answers to who and why of Jesus. They found those answers in their own Scripture. That does not mean that was the intent of the biblical author when he wrote.
My theological motivation? What is that? I'm a Buddhist. It's enough for me that the Jews, the authors of these scriptures- say David is not a prophet. He had a prophet advisor. Whatever for?
I believe if that is the metaphor that they wish then lions have claws and the mauling is a piercing.